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Is the integral of f'(x) -- or something like "S(f'(x))dx" where S is the intergral sign -- equal to f(x)?

2006-11-19 10:48:27 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

ok great :)

2006-11-19 10:58:45 · update #1

oh yeah, can't forget the constant. thanks too.

2006-11-19 10:59:02 · update #2

2 answers

Your correct, it is equal to f(x).

the integral and the differential cancel eachother out.!

2006-11-19 10:51:26 · answer #1 · answered by C.B 1 · 0 0

The indefinite integral of f'(x) is f(x) plus a constant.

The definite integral on the interval [a,b] is

f(b) - f(a).

2006-11-19 10:56:16 · answer #2 · answered by Damian_Anderson 2 · 1 0

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