2006-11-19 03:47:37 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
We know that a^/a^2=a^(6-2)=a^4 and x^10/x^3=x^(10-3)=x^7,we know that while dividing exponents by exponents the powers are subtracted
a^2/a^2=1 (by actual division) But a^2/a^2=a^(2-2)=a^0
therefore a^0=1
2006-11-19 03:59:13 · answer #1 · answered by alpha 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
a^0=a^m-m
=a^m/a^m=1
2006-11-19 11:51:24 · answer #2 · answered by raj 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Hi. A^1=A, A^-1=1/A, 0 is between 1 and -1, it just is.
2006-11-19 11:54:45 · answer #3 · answered by Cirric 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its a rule. When the teacher gives you a huge equation to figure out make sure first its not to the power of 0. lol. If it is the answer is 1.
2006-11-19 11:53:48 · answer #4 · answered by ODDONE 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
4^3=64
4^2=16
4^1=4
4^0=1
64/4=16, 16/4=4, 4/4= 1
2006-11-19 11:51:29 · answer #5 · answered by merviedz trespassers 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Any number to the power of 0 equals to one.
2006-11-19 11:50:27 · answer #6 · answered by La-Vie-En-Rose 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
we know a^m.a^n = a^(m+n)
put n =0
a^m a^0 = a^m
divide both sides by a^m to get a^0 = 1
this is true only for a not 0 so division by a^m is possible
2006-11-19 11:51:42 · answer #7 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It just is.
2006-11-19 11:51:10 · answer #8 · answered by smoltzfan29 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋