2006-11-19 03:33:43 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
a=1, a=0
TO ANSWER YOUR EMAIL QUESTION:
a^m * a^n = a^(m+n)
m+n ≠ mn for all m's and n's
Therefore we need to look at the base, a.
Since 1 to any power is always 1, we can state for certain that 1^m * 1^n = 1^mn for any m and n.
Similarly, since 0 to any power is always 0, we can state for certain that 0^m * 0^n = 0^mn for any m and n.
Hope that helped explain it a bit!
2006-11-19 03:36:30 · answer #1 · answered by I ♥ AUG 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is true for,
a = 1 or 0 then in which case any value of m & n will satisfy this equation.
If a is not equal to either 1 or 0 then any value of m & n which meats a condition that m = n / (n-1). However, in this case either m or n may not be intiger.
2006-11-19 04:41:02 · answer #2 · answered by Narendra Acharya 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1&0
2006-11-19 03:39:12 · answer #3 · answered by Dupinder jeet kaur k 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is obviousely true for a=1
If a<>1 then
a^m*a^n=a^mn
but a^m*a^n=a^(m+n)
so m+n=m*n
This isn't true for any m,n so
the only solution is a=1
2006-11-19 03:41:42 · answer #4 · answered by Iulia-Diana 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hi. Yes. a=1
2006-11-19 03:36:06 · answer #5 · answered by Cirric 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
a^m a^n = a^(m+n) = a^mn
so a = 0 or 1
2006-11-19 03:42:42 · answer #6 · answered by Mein Hoon Na 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is true for any positive value of m and n.
2006-11-19 03:37:57 · answer #7 · answered by ignoramus 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋