English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2006-11-18 16:11:40 · 24 answers · asked by A 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

24 answers

This is a perfect example of why people who don't research conditions and traditions relevant to the time the text was written should not form opinions of the what the text intended to imply.

#1) In that period of time, men sat on one side of the church and women on the other side with an aisle between. Whether they were married or single. It was done in an attempt to reduce distractions. For a man to sit next to an attractive lady can be a distraction and if the men truly want to concentrate on the message that seemed the best way to them at the time.

#2) Since the women WERE across the aisle they would have needed to talk rather loudly to get their husbands attention. So Paul saw fit to recommend silence in the church.

#3) Fewer women were afforded the opportunity to be educated. Not fair I know, but that is the way it was then and we have to acknowledge that if we are to understand the practices of the time. So, it was the duty of the husband to teach his household the ways of the lord. He was supposed to be a "priest" to his family. Therefore he needed to have full concentration in the church service to take the teachings home with him because they DID NOT have family bibles then. That seems so hard to believe I know but there were no book stores in those times. Copies of the scrolls were hard to come by and usually only recognized church leaders had copies.

#4) Paul was speaking about new issues that were only recently being written down. The family could not go home and take out the bible to read what Paul said in church. The New testament had not been completed as yet. That is why it was important to be quiet in church.

I hope this doesn't sound bigoted, but women are better communicators than the average man and are more likely to feel the need to talk. You have most likely seen it yourself at a gathering. The ladies are very social and more likely to be carrying on a meaningful conversation while the men sit back and watch.

I hope that explains this text so that everyone can understand it.

2006-11-18 17:02:16 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Those verses do not restrict women from speaking at all. Women were allowed to teach, disciple others, prophecy, and speak in tongues. See Romans 16 for a list of female apostles and teachers. 1 Corinthians 14:34-35 says that if women are there to learn, they shouldn't be yelling to their husbands, asking what something means. There is not and has never been any law against women preaching or leading. If there was, Deborah would not have been allowed to be a judge and a prophet, and Anna would not have been allowed to prophecy in the Temple.

2016-05-22 02:22:19 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

That edict stems from a time when women weren't considered intelligent enough to be able to understand the holy mysteries. They would go to temple dutifully with their husbands, but because their chauvanastic husbands never explained what was going on or why, they would gossip and laugh and disrupt the service.

Basically, it was a way of keeping service order. Now, it is true that in some places women were considered educated enough to pray, and Paul (the same dude who made that edict) said that if women were to pray in church, they should have their heads covered. Keep in mind, that at the time all women (save prostitutes) kept their heads covered. So the point was to keep them seperate in people's minds from prostitutes.

2006-11-18 16:19:59 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

I think when the Bible was written, women were being disruptive by asking questions when they should have been listening and quiet.
Women were not allowed to go to school at the same age as the boys were, so they probably didn't understand quite a bit, and probably had a lot of questions.

2006-11-18 16:17:04 · answer #4 · answered by keepingGodfirst 2 · 1 0

Women were not educated in the time Paul had written the letter. There was allot of distractions because they would ask questions during the message. It was not intended to say that they could not speak in church.

2006-11-18 16:15:55 · answer #5 · answered by Jesus Freak 2 · 2 0

Society allows them but the Bible clearly states "no woman shall utter words in my house". Meaning no woman shall preach in a church. It is not meant to be taken litterally as "a woman cannot speak in church".

Many are confused on this.

2006-11-18 16:15:34 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

They can so long as it's decently and in order and under subjection to the leadership of Godly elders. (not an occultic type dictatorship!) It would be impossible to pray or prophesy (with one's head uncovered) or seek the other spiritual gifts available for all if they couldn't speak! Jesus' mother, Mary was one of the women who recieved the Holy Ghost with evidence of speaking in other tongues on Pentecost and I don't think she did that with her mouth shut or those in attendance who heard them speaking in their languages would have had difficulty hearing it if they had been silent. That is the meaning of the Word, rightly divided and in context.

2006-11-21 08:20:02 · answer #7 · answered by Lovin' Mary's Lamb 4 · 0 0

1 Corinthians 14:34

Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saith the law

2006-11-18 16:16:42 · answer #8 · answered by ? 6 · 1 0

In what Church?

2006-11-18 16:17:34 · answer #9 · answered by Lost. at. Sea. 7 · 1 0

They do!
Where have you been??
That old Hat...

Gloria Copeland
Joyce Meyers
The list goes on
If they are teaching that to you it is out of ignorance, and not The Gospel of the Kingdom

Go get Kenneth Hagin's book
the women question

2006-11-18 16:18:36 · answer #10 · answered by Gifted 7 · 1 0

fedest.com, questions and answers