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Or is there some other reason?
This is a straight question. I do not want to get into a Da Vinci Code controversy.

2006-11-18 12:54:53 · 20 answers · asked by wisdom tooth 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

20 answers

The reason is that during the feudal era of europe, sons inherited their father's title and posessions. Because of this, priests' sons were assuming their father's role as priest and laying claim to the land. This meant there were priests who had no idea what they were doing, lacking the required education, and the church was losing its lands.

By forbidding marriage, they effectively forbade legitimate heirs to priests and thus ended the theft by inheritance.

However, there is no reason Biblically for it, and actually reason that Bishops should be REQUIRED to be married (in the Bible, Bishops are required to be married with children and in good standing in the community to prove that they could manage the house of God).

Since the feudal concept of inheritance no longer applies, there is nothing that prevents the Vatican from overturning the married requirement. Some ministers of other faiths who are in close communion with the Roman Catholic Church who convert to the RCC are given special dispensation to practice as Roman Catholic Priests despite being married.

2006-11-18 12:58:38 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Partly.

This idea of a celibate clergy came from the Jews, John the Baptist, Jesus, and the Apostle Paul.

The Jews. The Talmud argues that a person whose “soul is bound up with the Torah and is constantly occupied with it” may remain celibate (Maimonides, Laws of Marriage 15.3). For example, Yahweh ordered the prophet Jeremiah not to marry (Jeremiah 16:1-4). Moreover, the Essenes was a group that was active in Jesus’ time that practiced celibacy and thought by most scholars to be the authors of the Dead Sea Scrolls.

WWJD? What would Jesus do? Jesus did not marry.

John the Baptist and Jesus are both believed to have been celibate for their entire lives. Some scholars believe that the example of the Essenes influenced either or both Jesus and John the Baptist in their celibacy.

The Apostle Paul is explicit about his celibacy (see 1 Cor. 7). There is also evidence in the gospel of Matthew for the practice of celibacy among at least some early Christians, in the famous passage about becoming “eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven” (Matt. 19:12).

The concept took many twists and turns over the years and will probably take a few more before Christ returns in glory.

With love in Christ.

2006-11-18 15:52:54 · answer #2 · answered by imacatholic2 7 · 0 0

There is no imposed celibacy. No one is imposed into the seminary. They enter the priesthood on their own free will. There are options, with plenty of Catholic orthodox churches to go to, where marriage is permitted.
But they don't go there because God does not call them there. There some married priests in the Roman rite. They were Protestant ministers who have converted. Celibacy is not a doctrine, but a discipline.

1 Tim. 5:9-12 - Paul recommends that older widows take a pledge of celibacy. This was the beginning of women religious orders.

1 Tim. 4:3 - in this verse, Paul refers to deceitful doctrines that forbid marriage. Many non-Catholics also use this verse to impugn the Church's practice of celibacy. This is entirely misguided because the Catholic Church (unlike many Protestant churches) exalts marriage to a sacrament. In fact, marriage is elevated to a sacrament, but consecrated virginity is not. The Church declares marriage sacred, covenantal and lifegiving. Paul is referring to doctrines that forbid marriage and other goods when done outside the teaching of Christ and for a lessor good. Celibacy is an act of giving up one good (marriage and children) for a greater good (complete spiritual union with God).

2006-11-18 13:06:43 · answer #3 · answered by Br. Dymphna S.F.O 4 · 1 0

+ Celibacy + this concept of a celibate clergy got here from the Jews, John the Baptist, Jesus, and the Apostle Paul. The Jews. The Talmud argues that a individual whose “soul is for specific up with the Torah and is continuously thinking approximately it” could stay celibate (Maimonides, regulations of Marriage 15.3). as an occasion, Yahweh ordered the prophet Jeremiah to no longer marry (Jeremiah sixteen:a million-4). apart from, the Essenes grew to become right into a team that grew to become into lively in Jesus’ time that practiced celibacy and thought via maximum pupils to be the authors of the lifeless Sea Scrolls. WWJD? What might Jesus do? Jesus did no longer marry. John the Baptist and Jesus are the two believed to have been celibate for their total lives. some pupils have faith that the occasion of the Essenes motivated the two or the two Jesus and John the Baptist of their celibacy. The Apostle Paul is constrained approximately his celibacy (see a million Cor. 7). there is likewise evidence in the gospel of Matthew for the prepare of celibacy between a minimum of a few early Christians, in the well known passage approximately transforming into to be “eunuchs for the sake of the dominion of heaven” (Matt. 19:12). the assumption took many twists and turns over the years and could probable take some extra in the previous Christ returns in glory. + Counseling + in simple terms like priests, psychiatrists and psychologists are actually not required to be married to be marriage counselors. a clergyman with extra suitable than 20 years of adventure in counseling people (lots of them own acquaintances), baptizing them, marrying them, being at their bedsides whilst they die, and the burying them could have a storehouse of know-how and records. Even youthful priests have taken psychology and counseling instructions in the seminary. With love in Christ.

2016-10-22 08:11:15 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Well it is a DiVinci Code type controversy. Priest could be married in the Catholic Church up until the 1500s that's when the reformation started and the church wanted to gain more control over the priesthood. Up till then a parish priest would use the money he collected to support his wife, children, mistress, bastard children, his girlfriends, boyfriends, and the occasional hooker. The church realized that they would loose the population to the Protestant churches is they didn't end the corruption. Part of the reorganization was to have all new priests be celibate, at least on the surface.

2006-11-18 13:02:49 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Oh, indeed, there is "another reason"; it has everything to do with the Church keeping it's property.

"The first church council which definitely forbade marriage to the higher clergy was the local Spanish synod of Elvira (A.D. 305). A similar interpretation has sometimes been claimed for the third canon of that general council of Nicaea to which we 3 1 Cor. vii. 25 sq., ix. 5; I Tim. iii. 2, II, 12; Titus i. 6; E. Vacandard in Dict. de Theol. Cath., s.v. " Celibat." 4 This was a natural argument for the defenders of clerical celibacy even in far later times. St Bonaventura (d. 1274) puts this very strongly: "For if archbishops and bishops now had children, they would rob and plunder all the goods of the Church so that little or nothing would be left for the poor. For since they now heap up wealth and enrich nephews removed from them by almost incalculable degrees of affinity, what would they do if they had legitimate children?. . "

2006-11-18 13:03:18 · answer #6 · answered by Praise Singer 6 · 0 1

There is no Da Vinci code controversy in stating the fact that Jesus Of Nazareth was married, and had children. You can find proof of this in the Gospel of Phillip, and the Gospel of Mary Magdelene. These books were conveniently removed from the Bible at the Edict of Mycanea in the early first century, but are still available for those who would like to learn about Jesus between his birth and his death. The books of the Bible that were excluded are now bound in a volume called the Apochropha. Look it up at your local library if you are actually interested in learning the true answer to your question. If not then just close your eyes, cover you ears and only read from the book "they" want you to.

2006-11-18 12:59:27 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

Celibacy was imposed on the clergy in the 11th or 12th century. Until then the clergy was married and had families. We're not absolutely certain Jesus *wasn't* married (but like you said we don't want to get into that) There were still clergy who refused to give up their families and there were still preists, brothers and nuns who had sex despite the celibacy requirement. Celibacy isn't a normal human situation. Putting men adn women in those situations doesn't mean they're not going to have sex. Blessings.

2006-11-18 13:01:01 · answer #8 · answered by Mama Otter 7 · 1 2

Not really sure, but the 144,000 in Revelation are all male and "undefiled" by women, so maybe they're going for being one of the 144,000? Of course, if they're not Jewish, it doesn't count, but many christian denominations seem to think that they're automatically one of the 12 tribes, so who knows?

That doesn't explain nuns, but then men are the ones who came up with this stuff, and men seem to think women have more value if they're virgins, especially men of that time. There were pagan religions at that time that highly valued virgins, so they could have been incorporated into christianity that way too, we took quite a few pagan beliefs to put into christianity.

2006-11-18 13:02:31 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Priest: because they don't want his children to fight for his estate this was instated in the 10 centuary or so... Nuns because they choose to live a life of prayer that is why they live away from society living in chasity for Jesus they try to practice a virtuous life.

2006-11-18 12:59:06 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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