Kind of a puzzle? Like when Jesus asked the religious leader the important question... to Him... "how could the messiah, Davids descendant be greater than David?" as the Psalms say "The Lord said to my Lord" and the answer given in the scriptures ... Jesus is both the root (divine creator) and offspring of David (Emmanual God in the flesh)... Jesus is the root and offspring of Davif... fully God and fully man
There are many places that would lead one to believe Jesus was claiming to be in some sense both God and man. The example you cite also are consistent with the trinity where the Father is greater than the Son in office but equal in nature. So it is not somethign to oversimplify
1) The angel said Jesus would be a Holy Child, at attribute of the Holy Holy Holy God, not so with even John the Baptist the greatest of prophets born of men to that time. The angel did not describe John as a holy child as Jesus is intrinsically holy and in other places describes as sinless and even by himself "which of you convicts me of sin?" God is the only one instrinsically HOly "You ALONE are Holy everthing else has at best a derived holiness
2) "Before Abraham was I AM" Jesus refered to himself using the covenant name God repeated 3 times to Moses and this occures many many times in the gospel of john with the repeated Ego Eimi I AM I AM with two greek verbs together reserved for the name of God at the burning Bush, sjowign Jesus was around 2000 years earlier but also taking the covenant name of God
3)Only God can look on the heart in the Old Testament yet Jesus knew what was in the heart of man and knew their thoughts
King SOloman clearly said only God knows the heart, yet Jesus knew the thoughts of man
4) Many prophesies about God are ascribed to Jesus. Every knee will bow to God in Isaiah and Every knee will bow to Jesus in Phillipians. Daniel 3 God has the final and eternal kingdom... yet in Daniel 7 the Son of Man comes witht eh clouds and is given an eternal kingdome and WORSHIPPED by peoples of all nations... fits only Jesus
5) the notion that The Lord is Our righteousness in Isaian is consistent with Jesus providing deliverance from sin and a gift of righteousness by faith "all your acts of righteousness are as filthy rags" Isaiah "He wrapped me in a robe of RIghteousness" Isaiah... clearly in Daniel the death of the Messiah ussurs in eternal righteousness and seals up prophesy... how would the death of a mere man usher in eternal righteouness
6) Jesus himself said "tear down this temple and in three days I will raise it again" in John 2 showing he was human enough to die and divine enough to raise HIMSSELF from the dead
7) Jesus is the creator, judge and savior of the world in John and all aspects of God
8) Thomas calls Jesus "My Lod and the God (ho theos) in John
and is complemented by Jesus on Thomas belief. This makes strong claims of divinity in JOhn at the begining middle and end, carried from the start to end of the book very thematic
9) First and Last, Begining and End, Alpha and Omega are all titles given to God and to Jesus (see Revelation and Is
aiah) In colossions Jesus is desribed as the force that hold ALL things together
10) Angels do not dare to rebuke the devil as in the case of the book of Jude's describtion of the angel talking to satan... and yet Jesus clearly rebuked the devil showing he was no mere angel"
In the end Jesus is fully man but not only fully man... Jesus is fully God as well and Ithink in the sence of the God being three in persons and one in essense... I think you are oversimplifying the issue.. but you would not be the frist.
2006-11-18 09:05:31
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Of course you will not find any reference to Jesus being God in the Catholic Bible. They do not believe the FACT that Jesus is God so they deleted all references from the Bible.
Have you ever read "I and the Father are one." "If you have seen me you have seen the Father.".
How about the first 2 verses in Matthew "In the beginning was God, and the Word(Jesus) was with God, and the Word(Jesus) was with God.?
2006-11-18 18:44:49
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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How about Matthew 11:27. "All things have been handed over to Me by my Father: and no one knows the Son, except the Father; nor does anyone know the Father, except the Son, and anyone to whom the Son wills to reveal Him." In this verse, Jesus claimed to be the Son of God in an "exclusive and absolute sense," having a unique and personal relationship with the Father.
Then there is Matthew 16: 13When Jesus came to the region of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, "Who do people say the Son of Man is?"
14They replied, "Some say John the Baptist; others say Elijah; and still others, Jeremiah or one of the prophets."
15"But what about you?" he asked. "Who do you say I am?"
16Simon Peter answered, "You are the Christ, the Son of the living God."
17Jesus replied, "Blessed are you, Simon son of Jonah, for this was not revealed to you by man, but by my Father in heaven. 18And I tell you that you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the gates of Hades will not overcome it.
2006-11-18 17:12:50
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answer #3
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answered by thundercatt9 7
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I say that your question is one that demands specific words verbatim of Jesus Christ saying for himself that he was God. One must take into consideration such things as semetic hyperboles such as "if your left eye causes you to sin then pluck it out..." One must consider other elements such as the authors' literary style during their time, the culture that existed during or just before the gospels were written, translations, who the audience was that the gospels were written for, and consideration of statements that alude to what you're asking but not completely understood until after the Ascension of Jesus Christ. Our culture uses phrases such as "what's up?" "what's shakin'," Wow! That's bad, man!" to name a few. For me, in my culture I understand that "what's up" translate to "How are you doing?" or "What events are taking place around your life?" or "What events are taking place or have taken place? I really don't have much time to answer this question fully for it would take me several pages of argument such as a term paper and I have better things to do right now. To go back to your several questions, Jesus doesn't give his audience direct answers out but aludes. When Jesus stood before Sanhedrin in Matthew Chapter 26, verses57-66, he tells them a statement that gets all the religious leaders all riled up, claiming that Jesus' statement was blasphemy. The allusion was to that of Psalm 110 according to the Jerusalem Bible which basically states, "My Lord said to my Lord." The word "adonai was used for a substitute for Yahweh, the name of God which was never to be uttered according to their culture. If you want an answer verbatim, you probably won't find it.
On another note, like I mentioned earlier, my time is very limited. I didn't list my cited reference properly in A.P.A. style. You will also find a bunch of grammatical errors thoughout this answer. Consider this a rough draft. My answer is just off the cuff if you know what I mean. :-)
2006-11-18 17:41:43
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answer #4
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answered by Lorraine A 1
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John 8:58 -- Jesus said to them, "Most assuredly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM." "I AM" is the very name of God! Jesus claimed to be him.
Not only does Jesus make such a claim, but there are witnesses to the fact:
"The Jews answered Him, saying, 'For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy, and because You, being a Man, make Yourself God.'" (John 10:33).
2006-11-18 17:31:32
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answer #5
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answered by BC 6
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If you are looking for the "exact words" divinity then you'll be looking for a long time.
No matter what we as Christians tell you, you won't believe, so why bother asking loaded questions?
Jhn 10:25 Jesus answered them, I told you, and ye believed not: the works that I do in my Father's name, they bear witness of me.
Jhn 10:26 But ye believe not, because YE ARE NOT OF MY SHEEP, as I said unto you.
Jhn 10:27 My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:
Jhn 10:28 And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any [man] pluck them out of my hand.
Jhn 10:29 My Father, which gave [them] me, is greater than all; and no [man] is able to pluck [them] out of my Father's hand.
Jhn 10:30 I and [my] Father are one.
You may not be able to understand what Christ is saying but he is laying it out quite plain.
Since you, as a Muslim, are not of his sheep then you do not hear him which is quite expected.
2006-11-18 17:19:27
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answer #6
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answered by ViolationsRus 4
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John 8:58: "I tell you the truth," Jesus answered, "before Abraham was born, I am!"
Here Jesus claims to be eternal and takes the holy name of I AM for himself. Very clear. This is why the religious leaders picked up stones to try and kill him afterward.
2006-11-18 17:00:50
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answer #7
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answered by Aspurtaime Dog Sneeze 6
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Which of the 30 plus bible do you have reference to? The Popes has revised, rewritten and deleted so much and then add some more to the Bible I am confused.
2006-11-18 16:59:53
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answer #8
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answered by lonetraveler 5
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The Bible could not preview the existence of Jesus. The Bible existed before him.
Consequently stop linking the Bible to Jesus.
He came out with the New testament (the Gospel)
You are quoting the New testament (Gospel) this is NOT THE BIBLE .....
2006-11-18 16:58:19
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answer #9
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answered by Sweet Dragon 5
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Hon, if Jesus appeared to you this minute and told you that He and the Father were one...you wouldn't believe Him. Why would I attempt to convince you?
2006-11-18 17:42:46
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answer #10
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answered by Esther 7
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