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I have been playing golf for approx. 40 years never hitting a hole-in-one. This year I hit 3 hole-in ones in about 50 rounds. I read that the odds of hitting 1 is 1/3500 I was just wondering what the odds of hitting 3 in the same season was.

2006-11-18 06:38:12 · 6 answers · asked by btsgreatadventure 1 in Sports Golf

6 answers

The greater the number the smaller the chances, yes chances are you can hit a hole in one in 3500 hits but to hit 3 holes in one in 50 rounds it's impossible, maybe in 50 million rounds but it will take you maybe 70 years to do it..☺

2006-11-18 07:38:56 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

The odds of a professional golfer hitting a hole-in-one are approx. 3,700 in one. The odds of an average golfer hitting a hole-in-one are approx 12,700 in one. These can be expressed fractionally as well with 1/3500 = 0.00029% and 1/12700 = 0.000079% respecitvely.

Let's assume the professional golfer's scenario. The odds of him hitting three holes-in-one in a row are (1/3500)^3 = 0.000000000023%. Mind you, that's in a row.

His chances are increased with the number of holes he plays. Typically, there are around 4 par 3's on a course and maybe 1 par 4 that can be reached from the tee. In 50 rounds, let's say there are 250 elligible holes to get 3 holes-in-one. That increases your chances by a margin of 250/3 = 83.3 = 83000%.

You can find a pro's approx. chances of hitting 3 holes-in-one by multiplying 0.000000000023 x 83.3 = 0.00000000019%. That comes to a probablility of 1 in 540,000,000.

It's been a while since I studied probabilities, so if you see holes in my math, feel free to point them out.

2006-11-20 05:56:49 · answer #2 · answered by Spaghetti Cat 5 · 0 0

The PGA site might be able to help you with the odds. A golfer at Tri-Cities Golf Course near Bristol, Tennessee had 2 in the same round in March or April this year and they said the odds were 1 in 268,000,000. It was in the Bristol Herald Courier if you'd like to research it.

2006-11-19 14:27:37 · answer #3 · answered by geobert24 5 · 0 0

3500 Rounds 1/3500*3/50=3/175000 Simplify. One in every 58333.33 But if you play full rounds, the answer would be One in every 58334 rounds. Good work!

2016-05-22 01:11:18 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I don't believe you. Do you have a link to back that up?














































Just kidding, congratulations.

2006-11-18 09:56:03 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

probably 1in 9,999,999,999,999,999,999

2006-11-18 10:00:19 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers