2006-11-17 11:27:59 · 26 answers · asked by irish s 2 in Food & Drink ➔ Other - Food & Drink
lol :) I'm not sure.........
2006-11-17 11:29:43 · answer #1 · answered by day dreamin baby 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Unfortunately as funny as that is ...NO.
Forrest Mars Sr. and R. Bruce Murrie in 1939, purchased the rights and introduced the product in America. Brand naming was done using the first intials of their last names.
2006-11-17 19:34:50 · answer #2 · answered by teamnote 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
actually, sometimes the whole m isnt printed on, so sometimes your eating a n, or a v, or a w if it is upside down. so yes, you could be eating only an m. but would eating a bag of m&ms be eating m&m&m&m&m...ect. then?
2006-11-17 19:31:15 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No... if you had an IQ that was over 5 you would know that you are eating an M&M
2006-11-17 19:30:22 · answer #4 · answered by Gilbert 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Wasn't worth 5 points but a lot of questions aren't. It was at least cute. To answer- I guess so.
2006-11-17 19:36:34 · answer #5 · answered by Ruthinia 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
One reason they call them m & m's is because they're in a pack and there is more than one.It is still an m & m,without the s.
2006-11-20 18:22:33 · answer #6 · answered by Willnotlietoyou 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Are you kidding me. You should be ashamed of yourself. That totally wasn't worth 5 pts.
2006-11-17 19:30:06 · answer #7 · answered by DiVenanzo™ 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yeah!
2006-11-17 19:30:18 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no becuase no single one is called an "M"
But more importantly what does the M and M stand for?
2006-11-17 19:29:59 · answer #9 · answered by rache001 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Unless you turn it upside down, tehn you're eating a "W"
2006-11-17 19:28:48 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
Ive never thought of that
2006-11-17 20:37:39 · answer #11 · answered by Lore 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋