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If before the Qur'an why would the Qur'an teach that they are the ord of God? If after ho is it that there are scripture available that predate the Qur'an and they are in agreement with present day scripture? So why if your holy book calls them the word of God would you call them corrupt?

2006-11-16 21:15:55 · 9 answers · asked by djmantx 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Study dalaia The sciptures are the same as prior to the Qur'an.

2006-11-16 21:26:57 · update #1

hatoto sorry this is wrong. Qur'an taught they were holy word of God...study your Qur'an.

2006-11-16 21:28:48 · update #2

Sherhede They teach very contrary to the Qur'an for instance The story of Abraham and Issac? If you study these scripture you will be amazed.

2006-11-16 21:31:23 · update #3

Absolutely correct Nathan I know this is true. trying to figure out how Muslims have dealt with this contrdiction to there faith.

2006-11-16 21:33:56 · update #4

Mutafa When? Prior to the Qur'an? hy ould it call them the holy word of God? why ouldn't the Qur'an teach that God's word had been corrupted? Seems like that would be important to God and Muhammed.

2006-11-16 21:36:33 · update #5

Mutafa if the word corrupted prior to Jesus wouldn't he have mentioned it? Strange how neither he nor Muhammed called these corrupt and they are in drastic disagreement with the Qur'an. and nobody can tell me when? If those of you believe before the Qur'an how would God continue to call them holy?Makes no sense. Seems like someone like Jesus would have noticed that scripture a corrupt nd mentioned it instead he taught these me truths and fufilled prophesy and Jesus taugth the word was truth. Now the Qur'an teach's the scripture was true. when ws it corrupted after the Qur'an? Seems it must be what you mean but how is it in agreement with scripture that predates the Qur'an? Ever consider someone must be lieing to you?

2006-11-16 22:04:45 · update #6

Poki Poki If we have New Testament scripture vailable written before the Qur'an why would the Quran call it the word of God? If it as altered prior to the Qur'an?

2006-11-16 22:08:20 · update #7

Poki Poki The Christian Bible predates Muhammad and Islam by 500 years. The Jewish Torah predates Muhammad and Islam by 1,000 - 3,000 years. Muhammad said for Muslims to read the Bible for "Guidance and Light." For Islam to say they are corrupted, then is to call Muhammad a liar for recommending it.

The same Bible Muhammad would have seen (if he ever did) is in both (1) The Vatican (Codex Vaticanus) and (2) British Museum (Codex Sinaticus). It is all there, including Jesus dying on the cross as atonement for our sins. And, His resurrection, and ascension into heaven - in front of many witnesses. The New Testament is preserved in almost perfect condition in these two Greek texts which both predate Muhammad and Islam.

2006-11-16 22:17:40 · update #8

u7 No one said that a word could not have been misprinted But how could misprint acount for Christ dieing on the cros and toneing for sin? This was available for Muhammed to read and still he taught that the New Testament was the Holy Scripture. How do you explain this? Corrupt? If it were corrupt he would have surely known huh? A Prophet of God would known if God's word was corrupted?

2006-11-16 22:25:39 · update #9

Unity your not teaching Muslim doctrine just attacking things you don't undertand.Corrupt is different than misundertood.

2006-11-17 00:24:44 · update #10

9 answers

Jesus proclaimed to be God, hence the crucifixtion. All of the early church leaders thought Jesus was God. Even in the second century there is reports by a Roman oficial of Christians singing praises to Jesus as a God. If you don't believe me check it out for yourself, I did.

2006-11-16 21:28:18 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

that's why we sy it has correpted read this..
Leviticus 12:1-8 Explains that a woman has to be purified after giving birth because she is “unclean”. It goes on to say that birthing a male is cleaner then birthing a female, hence a mother must purify TWICE as long when having a daughter. This is BLATANT sexism from the point of birth. A woman is dirty simply for being a woman; this is obviously very biased and chauvinistic.

Leviticus 15:19-30 Explains that a woman having her menstruation must be avoided to the point of not even touching what she has touched. It is quite curious that women are punished for simply having a biological function that “God” claims to have created. What is so just about vilifying what you created?

Leviticus 18:19 Goes onto say that even LOOKING at a menstruating woman is wrong.

Leviticus 19:20 Says that if a man has sex with a slave or betrothed woman he must then “scourge” her. Scourging is a term for a severe flogging or whipping. I find it quite curious that the woman shall be punished to the point of a beating for such an occurrence, yet the man gets to go free for the deed.

Leviticus 21:9 Explains that unchaste daughters of priests must be burnt to death. What about his unchaste sons? Of course this isn’t even answered in the Torah, we are to assume yet again that men have the power to do as they wish and a woman must suffer the punishment for BOTH of them.

Leviticus 27:3-7 God places a dollar value on human life; with women worth less than men.

Numbers 1:2 Is the basis for the sexism that remains rampant today. In this verse Moses takes a poll of all the men who are able to fight in war, women aren’t even counted in the census. Apparently back then, just like today, us women are considered the weaker species and unable to battle. (Let’s not forget that during the time the Pentateuch was written women in Pagan cultures were FEARED and revered as the more powerful species. It is because of this patriarchal religion and it’s offshoots that we have been reduced to cowering sub-humans.)

Numbers 30:3-16 A woman can’t make a vow unless her husband allows it.

Numbers 31: 14-18 Moses tells his men to kill all the males, non-virginal women, elderly and children of the Midianite tribe. Of course, the virgin women are kept for raping. If you read later down in the scripture God states that the Jews can not even marry a Midianite woman (with exception to Moses). Hence these women who were captured were repeatedly raped and impregnated and they weren’t even allowed a marital status in which to protect them.

Deuteronomy 20:13-15 Kill all the men and boys in the cities that God “delivers into your hands,” but keep the women for raping.

Deuteronomy 21:11-14 If you see a pretty woman among the captives then just take her home and “go in unto her.”

Deuteronomy 22:5 Women that wear men’s clothing are an “abomination unto the Lord.”

Deuteronomy 22:13-22 Women, be sure to keep the tokens of your virginity. Otherwise the men of your city may stone you to death. This does not apply to men though, of course. What is interesting to note here is the actual wording, it says : “that if a man hateth his wife he may say she did not have the tokens of her virginity”. Since there is no way a woman can truly prove she had a hymen upon marriage the word rests on the husband and she can be disposed of simply when he tires of her.

Deuteronomy 22:23-24 is one of the most cruel and sexist passages of the Torah. It says that women who are raped and fail to “cry out loud” in a populated area are most likely enjoying the attack should be killed.

Deuteronomy 22:28-29 A rapist must buy his victim from her father for 50 shekels. Is this supposed to be some type of retribution? What about the victim here, what if she doesn’t want to marry a pig who raped her? All that matters is her father receives payment for his “property”.

Deuteronomy 25:11-12 Says that we must cut off a woman’s hand if she touches the “secrets” of a man who is fighting with her husband…“And thine eye shall not pity her.” Once again, there is no punishment for the man she touched, only the wo

if you think this is the word of God then i think you are dumb ..

for true guidence read the quraan..

2006-11-17 07:11:14 · answer #2 · answered by boshhhhhhhhhh 2 · 1 1

They are not corrupt. They are holy books as well. However, the 'alteration' that happened during the time of the Roma Catholic is regarding the concept of trinity and considering Jesus as god or the son of god.

Before that, Jesus was thought of as a prophet; just as he is.

Peace

2006-11-17 05:20:27 · answer #3 · answered by daliaadel 5 · 0 0

After the respected prophets who were entrusted to protect the books passed on and corrupt rabbis or priests took bribes to make changes for the whims of the wealthy.

2006-11-17 05:32:26 · answer #4 · answered by Mustafa 5 · 1 0

We do not say the original books of the Abrahamic religions are corrupt.They cannot be.Yes versions that are devised to suit man to allow them to divorce and remarry and so on are corrupt and not the word of god but man.

2006-11-17 05:26:07 · answer #5 · answered by Sherzade 5 · 0 0

read for yourself from ur own Bible:

( Jeremiah 8:8)"
"`How can you say, "We are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?'

and what's more corrupted than translating the original language of the Bible from Aramiac, to hebrew, to Greek. then to English and then claim that it has no errors or mistake? definatly it has alot of errors and missunderstanding. just like when i look at the translation of the Quran in English, there are alot of errors.

2006-11-17 06:16:05 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

For mighty King James.

2006-11-17 05:23:04 · answer #7 · answered by Labatt113 4 · 1 0

the Talmud is not even divine!!

as for the Old Testament, the NON Muslim scholars agree that it has been altered and added to.

http://www.rotten.com/library/religion/bible/historical-construction/ot-errata/

2006-11-17 05:58:16 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

they are corrupted before Islam
when holly quran said that they are the word of Allah it means that it was before they corrupted

2006-11-17 05:21:29 · answer #9 · answered by hatota 3 · 0 1

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