They were always called by the same name - Muslims (correct spelling)
2006-11-16 08:15:15
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answer #1
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answered by Regina 5
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Yes. That is the spelling they used when I was in school - back during the stone age. I think it reflected the western translation of the word. I guess, in translation, Muslim is closer to the way the natives say it. You may also notice the Chinese example - where Peking has become Beijing, probably for a similar reason.
It all sounds like the work of the PC police - nothing in the west is good enough for asians and mideasterners anymore
2006-11-16 16:20:16
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answer #2
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answered by loveourcountry 2
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It's a matter of pronouciation. I always found the spelling "Muslims" more accurate to the original Arabic word. That is the spelling used and preferred by most Muslims and Arabic speakers.
2006-11-16 16:54:00
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answer #3
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answered by gsumayya 3
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Since the first Muslims were not English it is clearly a translation. They were called Mussellmen too for quite a while.
2006-11-16 16:15:29
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answer #4
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answered by fourmorebeers 6
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Tomayto Tomahto
2006-11-16 16:18:01
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Actually both are correct just with the media mentioning it more and more the ladder one is used more often. It has something to do with the romanization of Arabic. Another example would be the Koran or Qur'an. They're both technically correct.
2006-11-16 16:19:23
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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No!
They were called Mohammedans and now they are Muslims-for-Jesus.
2006-11-16 17:53:57
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answer #7
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answered by mythkiller-zuba 6
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yes , they were called moslems and mohammedans.
2006-11-16 18:38:55
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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I believe "Musilm" is the anglicized version.
2006-11-16 16:16:57
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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is there difference?!!
Both are pronounced the same!!
2006-11-16 16:14:29
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answer #10
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answered by Monika 3
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