English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

...why does the religious right keep taking scriptures written specifically for the Levitical Priesthood and applying them to modern man? Why do they ignore the fact that when Paul gave us Romans 1:26-27, he was referring to temple prostitution and not romantic relationships? Why did Jesus never utter one word about homosexuality, but talked a lot about adultery within marriage? Why does the Bible specifically refer to the apostle John as "the apostle that Jesus loved" but never attributes this affection to any of the other apostles? Why did God tell Adam and Eve to "replenish" the earth if it had never been previously populated? Go figure.

2006-11-16 07:17:52 · 21 answers · asked by deLaParre 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

In all fairness, I have to admit I have read Josephus' history cover to cover many times. For those that do not know, Josephus was one of the few official historians that chronicled the history of the jews from a neutral point of view.

2006-11-16 07:25:03 · update #1

I assume you can read Greek, Willy? It's in the translation - there was no Greek word for homosexuality. The Greek word Paul used was specific to temple prostitution, just like the dictionary under the word hypocrite says, "see Jerry Falwell."

2006-11-16 07:32:25 · update #2

21 answers

Because people like to weasel out of uncomfortable things in the bible by playing the 'context' card. Notice that they don't do that when Jesus says to hate your father, mother and yourself to follow him.

2006-11-16 07:20:34 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

Ok, lets take them one at a time...

If you would like someone to read you all 3.6 million words of the scripture when making a point about the issue of homosexuality, i will be glad to do it. Just let me know where and why. Brings lots of PB&J sandwiches, because it will take a while.

As few people are willing to spend that much time, most people have to quote only small portions at a time. And it is usually best to quoted the one that deal with the subject.

Paul: even if it is true that Romans 1:26-27 refers to temple prostitutes, what happens to 1 Corinthians 6:19-20, where the temple prostitues are listed as the "effeminate" in the KJV are listed separate from homosexuals? Both are condemned separately in this verse. I have yet to hear anyone who raises the "temple prositute" issue even acknowledge that 1 Cor exist. Somehow they miss that verse.

Jesus and homosexuals: Jesus never said anything about child molesters. He never condemned crooked politicians, polluters, drug addicts, corrupt policeman, wife beaters, vote suppressing, or many many other things that are obviously wrong. To argue that by NOT condeming homosexuality, Jesus endorsed is would mean that he also endorsed wife beating and denying women the right to vote. He did not discuss the subject because it was not necessary. First, unlike adultry, it only involves about 2% of the population. He spend his time on subjest that invlived the majority, not the minority. Secondly, it was not a common practice among the Jewish people he was addressing,l so why waste their time on it. And third, it was already clearly condemned elsewhere in the Jewish scriptures. Why repeat it?

John, the apostle Jesus loved. The one always makes me laught, because it shows how little the people pushing it understand about the Bible. The New Testament was not written in English. It was written in a language called Greek. While in English, the word "love" can refer to sexual relations, the Greek word used, "agape" has absolutely no sexual meaning at all. in fact, it means a love that is not in amy way sexual. The Greel word for sexual love was "eros" from which we get words like erotic. So when the Bible says that John was the disciple that Jesus "loved", it means that he held John in an esteem that was above and beyond anything as shallow as sexual desires. The verse is the number one proof in the Bible that there was NOT a sexual relationship between Jesus and John. (Oh, it does in several other places state the Jesus had non-sexual agape relations with all of the other disciples also).

2006-11-16 07:44:27 · answer #2 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 1 0

Well let's start at the beginning:

Context is important! And I question anything that is rip out of context.

Not sure what specifiacally you are referring to within Levitical law seeing as it is a broad topic. But simply "Christ did not come to abolish the law but to fulfill it." Jesus said that "the greatest commandment is to love the Lord your God with all your heart soul and strength. And the second is like it love your neighbor as yourself." Follow God's moral laws are a pretty good way to do both.

Romans passage: there is no mention of Temple prostitutes. Just the worrship of created thing be that, a stone statue, money or lust and romantic love. This not a terrible place to look for God's opinion on homosexuality but I think there are better.

Jesus' silence on homosexuality: There are a lot of issue that Christ did not address directly. But that makes something no less a sin. It is the principle that need to be applied.

"The apostle whom Jesus loved" referring to John. This is used by John himself. John knew that Jesus loved him and chose to declare it in this fashion. The book of John is simple book that runs deep. I think it was Calvin that said something to the effect of, "the book of John is shallow enough for a child to play inand deep enough for an elephant to drown in." Another thing that needs to be considers is to whom was the book written and for what purpose. But that is a different discussion.

"Replenish" Gen 1:28: Well that depends on the version. Most modern and more accurate translation say "fill the earth" or something similar. I will be honest that I do not know the exact word in the original Hebrew but seeing as the more accurate translations (NASB, ESV) say, "fill the earth," that is most likely the best translation.

Anyway, just thought that perhaps you wanted a new look at the issue from, dare I say it, a thinking Christian.

2006-11-16 07:55:02 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

OK Mav working on this.
Rom 1:26-27 - Mav agrees, that has some to do with temple prostitution, but these things were also going on outside the temple.

Mav not sure about question about Jesus talking about adultery and homosexuality - she knows that Jesus spoke a about adultery,

John was the youngest disciple (this explains his position at the table during the last supper and that he was leaning on Jesus - it had to do with Jewish tradition) This would have been a name of affection as a 'little brother'
The society they were in was/is entirely different that our uptight society. Men are allowed to kiss, hold hands etc without sexuality having anything to do with it.

2006-11-16 07:28:31 · answer #4 · answered by Mav here! 4 · 1 0

The earth WAS previously populated, dinos, etc
I am an old earth believer, their are many sites who can enlighten you on this
The levitical laws were discontinued where it comes to ritual, but not moral, issues
You can see many "sins" listed in the new testament that are carried over from the old
Why would jesus mention it when it is a dominant feature of the old (see sodom and gomorrah)? He was usually condemning the religious leaders, not confronting "laypersons" and their sins, and there are MANY sins he did not mention
Why do you say paul was referring to temple prostitution? There is no mention of it in the section to which you refer

God is Great

2006-11-16 07:27:18 · answer #5 · answered by willy nilly 1 · 1 1

Here is something that confuses many... there are literary rules that can clarify some, if not most, of the problems encountered when people try to take the Bible too literally. Here's a link that might help some:
http://www.virtualsalt.com/litterms.htm

Love, Hope, Peace, & Christ Be With You,

Cal-el & Swissy

2006-11-16 07:28:10 · answer #6 · answered by Prodigal Son 4 · 1 0

replenish in Hebrew is male' {maw-lay'} which means to fill, be full ---Not REFILL
John is the human author of the gospel of John where he calls himself "the apostle that Jesus loved" Since the gospel of John is about "God so loved the world", it is fitting that he refers himself this way.
Homosexuality and adultery within marriage both are sexual perversions which are addressed by the law.

In Romans 1, nowhere does Paul address temple prostitutes, rather he is talking about the nature of mankind...
26 That is why God abandoned them to their shameful desires. Even the women turned against the natural way to have sex and instead indulged in sex with each other. 27 And the men, instead of having normal sexual relationships with women, burned with lust for each other. Men did shameful things with other men and, as a result, suffered within themselves the penalty they so richly deserved.
28 When they refused to acknowledge God, he abandoned them to their evil minds and let them do things that should never be done. let them do things that should never be done. let them do things that should never be done. let them do things that should never be done.

Those things should NEVER be done!

2006-11-16 07:35:07 · answer #7 · answered by Jay Z 6 · 0 1

Blasphemy. You should not attempt to teach the word of Christ when you do not understand the word or God. Would you do brain surgery because you read an anatomy book? I should hope not. A little bit of knowledge is a dangerous thing! You should get on your knees before the Lord and seek an understanding to his words.

2006-11-16 07:29:25 · answer #8 · answered by Shayna 6 · 1 2

You're attempting to make Christians think. Be careful, some Christians' heads may explode from overheating.

2006-11-16 07:25:10 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Jesus says in Matthew: Be on the whatch for fake prophets they arrive to you in sheeps overlaying yet interior they're starving wolves. by thier end result you would recognize those adult men. stable fruit canot come from a bad tree and a powerful tree won't be able to produce stable fruit. by thier end result you would recognize those adult men. So enable me see... Sheeps overlaying: Its people who gown nicely to decieve human beings only the like tale of the wolf that wearing a sheep overlaying to seize the different sheep. Sound framiliar? Knock Knock Wolves: they only holiday in packs and don't affiliate with the different animals. Sound framiliar?( Witnesses basically affiliate with different witnesses) stable fruit message: Thats one you may desire to seem at your self. The e book of Deumentry: all of us who says something in gods call that doesn't come genuine, like a prediction or prophesy will die. stay faraway from those adult men. Sound framiliar? ( end of the worldwide prophesy did no longer come genuine contained in the 70's) ***And the main fake section is......they say they're genuine Christians with the aid of fact they pass door to door telling human beings of the stable information of his kingdom. The portion of the bible they get this from is while Jesus became into telling his DICIPLES to do this. no longer us. they're working at something that has already been performed. The bible is the main standard e book on earth with the aid of fact of what those adult men did almost 2030 years in the past. people who faux they're diciples is discracefull. They in no way knew Jesus while he became into alive needless to say. Jesus says contained in the e book of Matthew that no longer all of us asserting lord lord lord will enter his kingdom and those human beings will say " C'mon Jesus we suggested you and prophesized approximately you each and every of the time" and to this he will say " get faraway from me I in no way knew you. you're workers of Lawlessness!

2016-10-04 01:07:42 · answer #10 · answered by kinjorski 4 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers