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Will of God: "I will have mercy, and not sacrifice" is the same will and stated purpose of Christ(Son of God) coming, as noted in Psalms 40:6; Psalms 51:16; Jeremiah 6:20; Hosea 6:6; Matthew 6:10; Matthew 9:13; Matthew 12:7; John 17:4; Hebrews 10:7-10.

But the will of the Father is not the same will of Jesus(Son of Man) in Luke 22:42 "Father...not my will, but thine, be done".

Is the Father of Jesus perhaps different than the Father of Christ? If they are one, their will should also be one, not two different wills.

2006-11-16 03:15:37 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

8 answers

This may sound simplistic but if you think of Jesus as God's avatar on Earth it kind of makes better sense.

God's will and Jesus's will are one in the same for us humans, but Jesus was God in human form, exactly the same as you and I but more like I said above an avatar.

2006-11-16 03:22:53 · answer #1 · answered by Axel M 3 · 0 0

I will tell you what I think about this- And I have not actually studied too deeply into those scriptures- and it does not change my knowing that God and Jesus are one- God became Jesus in the flesh right? So as God was a man- he felt the same physical pain as we do- therefore when he says not my will- that is saying that although He is suffering in pain, He still wants God to go through with the sacrifice. This shows us that Jesus had felt PAIN and suffering. ---This is also good to show us that because he went through all of that- he understands exactly what we go through when it comes to temptation and pain.

-And I like what saggert said

2006-11-16 03:21:42 · answer #2 · answered by Mandolyn Monkey Munch 6 · 0 0

Though Jesus in one in essence with the Father, they are separate Persons. A person may be defined as one with will, intellect, and emotion. Therefore, there is no theological problem, no violation of the Trinity, for Jesus to have a unique will from the Father.

2006-11-16 03:19:07 · answer #3 · answered by 5solas 3 · 0 1

When Jesus said that, he was being tempted by the devil. His human nature was inclined to not do the Father's Will. As God, Jesus could never sin. When he said "not my will," he meant not the will of his human flesh.

2006-11-16 03:46:15 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

you must remember that Jesus on earth had the 2 natures as God and human on the same time, and he sometimes was talking as Jesus the man, and sometime as Jesus the God, in this particulare case you are refaring to, Jesus the Human was talking..and he was praying as any other man would pray..

2006-11-16 03:24:11 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Jesus in His human nature subjected His will in humble obedience to the Father,but His divine will was always in tune with That of His Father.

2006-11-16 03:18:51 · answer #6 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 2 0

James 1:13, vs Hebrews 4:15 you figure it out! You do err not knowing the scriptures....even Devil know this and continue to spread the lie. Had Jesus not been obedient until His dead we would have not got our salvation!

2015-07-27 03:11:41 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

they dont know ,they will say the father.the son,the holyspirit (are) one dont think you will get another answer

2006-11-16 03:17:57 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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