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you know..like if I say "I am a tall girl in Spanish is "Yo soy una chica alta, right...but if I say "I am a sweet girl is "Yo soy una chica dulce.....i don't know if it is dulce or dulca..dulce is masculine and dulca is feminine,right?

Like... alto is masculine and alta is feminine

2006-11-15 16:48:23 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Languages

16 answers

there are three kind of nouns and adjectives in spanish:
masculine
femenine
neutral

most of masculine words end with "o"
most of femenin words end with "a"
most of neutral words end with "e" or "e + another letter"

dulce is neutral therefor you say he is sweet = él es dulce, she's sweet = ella es dulce

juez is another neutral word. He is a judge =él es un juez, she is a judge = ella es una juez (although now a days it's becoming "jueza")

2006-11-15 17:08:20 · answer #1 · answered by chris_keever2000 7 · 1 0

the first person is right its just Dulce its neither feminine nor masuline its neutral. Dulce is right because the other word would say Dulka and there is no such work like that in spanish. I am from Mexico and I am a fluent Spanish speaker so if you need any more help with Spanish just tell me.

2006-11-15 16:57:36 · answer #2 · answered by Margarita05 3 · 1 0

If the word ends with "e", it is a unisex word, meaning that it is neither masculine nor feminine. Unisex words are always masculine, meaning that you would say "los dulces" or "el dulce" but never "la dulca". Plus, "dulca" would be pronounced "dool-ka" in proper Spanish pronunciation. Words that end in "o" and "a" are generally masculine and feminine, respectively.

Hope this helps!

2006-11-15 16:57:53 · answer #3 · answered by 27ridgeline 3 · 2 1

¿usted know..like si digo "soy una muchacha alta en español soy" chica Alta, la derecha del una de la soja de Yo... pero si digo que "soy una muchacha dulce es" el dulce.....i del chica del una de la soja de Yo no sabe si es dulce o dulca..dulce es masculino y dulca es femenino, derecho? Como... el alto es masculino y Alta es femenina

2006-11-15 16:51:36 · answer #4 · answered by dianehaggart 5 · 0 0

'Dulce' refers the taste of food, and can also mean 'gentle' when talking about people.
'Amable' refers to people and means 'kind'.

The endings of these words can't change to -a, since they end in -e (eg: 'grande' does not become 'granda').

Therefore, "I am a sweet girl" should be either "(Yo) soy una chica amable", or your sentence above.

2006-11-15 17:16:18 · answer #5 · answered by porli_hedd 1 · 0 0

The word for sweet is dulce, it doesn't change.
only words that end in "a" is for female. "o " is male
for example, Alto, alta, bajo, baja. chica, chico. pato, pata .

2006-11-16 19:45:26 · answer #6 · answered by leoncito123451 2 · 0 0

Excellent, lets make things clear: SPANISH Spanish has two meanings: 1) A language 2) A person born in Spain MEXICAN A person born in Mexico. So: 1.1*A Mexican is not Spanish (even though he may speak Spanish) 1.2*A person of Mexican ancestry born in the US is NOT Mexican. Mexican is a nationality, not a race. You don't carry nationalities in your blood. LATINO The word "latino" in the "latin languages" (Portuguese, Spanish, French, Italian) is any person from Europe or America (continent) that comes from a country that speak a latin language. In the US, though, it's just an ethnic label that aplies to people from Latin America or born in the US with Latin American ancestry So: 2.1*A Spanish is not latino (US meaning of latino) 2.2*A Mexican is latino HISPANIC The real meaning of the word "Hispanic" is a person that speak Spanish. But in the US it has become an ethnic label that aplies to people from a Spanish-speaking country of Latin America or with ancestry from a Spanish-speaking country of Latin America. So: 3.1*A Spanish is Hispanic, if you use the real meaning of the word, but is not Hispanic if you use it as an ethnic label 3.2*A Mexican is Hispanic 3.3*A Hispanic may be latino, and a latino may be Hispanic, cause: 3.3.1*If you use the real meaning of the word Hispanic not all Hispanics are latinos, cause Spanish are Hispanic but aren't latinos. 3.3.2*But if you use Hispanic as a ethnic label, then all Hispanics are latinos 3.3.3*Not all latinos are Hispanic because Brazilians and Haitians are latinos but aren't Hispanic. In Brazil is spoken Portuguese and in Haiti is spoken creole (a dialect of French). VERY IMPORTANT: Mexican, Latino, Hispanic, none of them are races, a Mexican, latino or Hispanic may belong to any race (white, black, native american, mulatto, mestizo, mixed, etc) and they do belong. Of course in your country you'll see those words used with a wrong meaning all the time, including in the big media, but this answer is the nearer from the right answer as posible. I'm not Yankee, I'm a Brazilian living in Brazil.

2016-03-28 22:07:34 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

in that case the word is neither feminine or masculine, its just "dulce"

2006-11-15 16:50:24 · answer #8 · answered by cami 4 · 3 0

If it ends in an e, it is considered both masculine and feminine.

2006-11-15 16:56:51 · answer #9 · answered by MateoFalcone 4 · 1 0

Hi Kim!

Some adjectives in Spanish don' t have a gender declination
dulce,
caliente,
vívora,
servil,
pusilánime,
obediente,
razonable.

all of those examples, not change with gender.

2006-11-16 05:33:32 · answer #10 · answered by joseph 4 · 0 0

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