2006-11-15 12:06:11 · 27 answers · asked by Snowth 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Quoting scripture on death's door is quite typically Jewish, according to a few friends of the faith.
Why he chose that particular phrase, on the other hand, might perhaps have something to do with the phenomenal sense of emotional isolation he would have been experiencing during crucifixion. When you've been hung up there for hours, with the pressure on your lungs gradually building as those you know stand and watch you die, it would be very easy to feel completely disconnected from the world and abandoned by the very reality you occupy. For Jesus, for whom the spirit of the world was itself one of those that he had a personal relationship with, it must have been a gruelling few hours.
2006-11-15 12:30:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was not questioning God; he was quoting the first line of Psalm 22 - a deep expression of the anguish he felt when he took on the sins of the world, which caused him to be separated from his Father. THIS was what Jesus dreaded as he prayed to God in the garden to take the cup from him. The physical agony was horrible, but even worse was the period of spiritual separation from God. Jesus suffered this double death so that we would never have to experience eternal separation from God.
2006-11-15 12:43:14 · answer #2 · answered by Freedom 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Actually He said "My God, my God..."
That's the only time in the Bible where Jesus didn't use the term Father. That's because that was his humanity that was crying out in puzzlement on the cross when He was made sin for us and his human nature suddenly felt the alienation of God's presence at that terrible moment of judgment.
2 Corinthians 5:21 For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.
2006-11-15 12:10:56 · answer #3 · answered by Martin S 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Here we have the high cost of the atonement to Christ, who was accursed of God for us as a sinbearer (II Cor 5:21 ; Gal 3:13) and suffered the agony of spiritual death for us.The sense of being forsaken was not necessarily caused by God the Father looking away from Him, but from His looking at Him in wrath, as He would look in judgment at condemned sinner. He.. cried.. .with a loud voice as a shout of triumph and yielded up His spirit. In other words having borne the wrath of God's judgment against sin., He knew that He has triumph over satan and the curse of sin. His hell was 'bruised' , but the serpent's head had been crushed. The yielding of His life was the result of His voluntary surrender of His life for the sake of His own.
2006-11-15 12:25:07 · answer #4 · answered by It's not about me 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The true answer is no human knows. We summize that part of paying the price for sin Jesus had to be absent of God's pressence, if just for a moment, and that is the reason for the plea, but we really do not know.
2006-11-15 12:15:03 · answer #5 · answered by mike g 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because as the ultimate sacrifice his job was to draw all the evil in the world towards him, so that it would perish with him. If God continued to protect him, the evil wouldn't even get close. So just before his death, God had to withdraw his protection, and Jesus sensed that. Just after making this remark, Jesus died.
Well, that's what someone told me anyway....
2006-11-15 12:21:54 · answer #6 · answered by keith 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because that was the entire point. Christ was to experience Hell on the cross for oursakes, to take our place therein. What is Hell? The complete and utter abandonment of God. When God turned away, when he could not watch his son suffer any further, it was then that Jesus experienced Hell on the cross.
2006-11-15 12:12:50 · answer #7 · answered by Shawn L 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Who was there to document it?
And if there was, why didn't he free him?
I would like something a bit more concrete than a several times translated book of prehistoric words and people telling me what they believe and so what I should think. I'm getting a bit fed up of religions. God maybe, religions not so happy with.
2006-11-15 14:10:04 · answer #8 · answered by The Mole 2 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because He was bearing all the sins of the world both past and future and to do so He had to withhold His power as God and surrender to God. He felt forsaken as we would if we had to go through that. He was speaking as the man He was and not at that time as God. He had two natures and the human nature was talking.
2006-11-15 12:11:42 · answer #9 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Because Jesus had taken upon himself the sins of the world, which separated him from God the Father. Also, to fulfil prophecy.
2006-11-15 17:26:29 · answer #10 · answered by waycyber 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋