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An unexpected result: AC=BC dose not imply that A=B . Explain why

2006-11-15 00:33:27 · 4 answers · asked by mustafaalrawe 1 in Science & Mathematics Engineering

4 answers

The only case that I could think of that A is not equal to B where AC=BC is when C=0. Other than that A must equal B for the expression to be valid

2006-11-15 00:42:36 · answer #1 · answered by TheLastPrincess 4 · 0 0

I think this relates to inductive vs. deductive reasoning.

If you start with the premise that A = B, then you are guaranteed that AC = BC (provided A, B, and C are real).

However, if you start with the premise that AC = BC, then you are NOT guaranteed that A = B.

The first statement is deductive and is guaranteed to be true. The second statement is inductive and, therefore, even just one exception will render the argument non-cogent (in this case, the exception where C = 0).

2006-11-15 16:31:02 · answer #2 · answered by Tom 2 · 0 0

if C=0 ,certainly notbut otherwise

2006-11-15 00:37:01 · answer #3 · answered by maussy 7 · 0 0

if A and B are matrices then it's possible for A not equal B

2006-11-15 02:00:51 · answer #4 · answered by cw 3 · 0 0

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