I mean he is God he didn't have to tell them to show themself to the priest but he did. He did this after he healed them and after he forgave them (which Scripture also teaches is interchangeable). How does this negate the "ONLY confessing sins to Jesus"
2006-11-14 14:48:14 · 8 answers · asked by Midge 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I know that he told them to go show themself to the priests but, why did he have to? He is God he could have just said they were clean right? The Temple would have to believe him right? If not would it have been so that a scandel wouldn't have been done so the whole congregation would know they were forgiven? Don't you think this might be like the case for confession?
2006-11-14 15:19:16 · update #1
Um...what about the passage that said that he breathed on the Apostles and told them to go and "Forgive the sins of the world"?
2006-11-14 14:56:32 · answer #1 · answered by papadego 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I would be interested in finding out where you came up with this information... I have never seen it anywhere and I am an avid student of the New Testament. Firstly, there were no priests at that time.. if you had said Rabbi, it would be a bit more appropriate but that isn't even found in there. Secondly, Jesus is not God. He will sit at the right hand of God when He assumes His throne on the day of judgment.
2006-11-14 14:55:49 · answer #2 · answered by mrcricket1932 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus not in any respect rejected the regulation. It replaced into written contained in the regulation that they could bypass educate the priest after being healed. right now, clergymen are only actual stand-ins for Jesus, who's the severe Priest. Their auhority rests entirely in him, it can't be conferred upon him through a vote of the committed, yet handed on through those given the authority, same as contained in the former testomony even as Elijah handed on his mantel of authority to Elisha.
2016-11-24 20:16:30 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Amplifying what Cherry has said, physical deformity or disease was considered sin. One would not be allowed in the temple with disease or deformity. Consider the many who were often just outside the temple. Hence showing oneself healed to a priest is sharing the amazing power of God's healing.
2006-11-14 15:01:04 · answer #4 · answered by Bentley 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The reason Jesus told the man who was healed of leprosy to go to the priests was to open their eyes so they would know that the messiah had come. Back in those days, no one had ever been healed of leprosy, they believed it was something only the promised one(Jesus) could do.
2006-11-14 14:57:47 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
When people had leprosy in that culture, they were cast out and were not permitted to go back unless they were pronounced clean by the priest. Jesus healed their leprosy and then told them to go to the priest so they could be declared clean.
2006-11-14 14:56:04 · answer #6 · answered by Cherry 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
he gave them order to show themselves...so that they may know the Truth...if they see...then they will preach the truth....because before..if you were sick...you were not allowed to go to the temple.....
2006-11-14 14:51:05 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Because he couldn't believe it either!
2006-11-14 14:52:35 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋