English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2006-11-14 08:41:57 · 13 answers · asked by EruditeGuy 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

The point of this question is this:

Since this is a contradiction, God cannot be omnipotent.

Further, does God know that s/he cannot create such a stone beforehand? If not, God is not Omnicient.

In summary, God is not all powerful as we see him/her. Therefore, God does not exist!

2006-11-14 08:50:40 · update #1

Hey thstuff9946,

Please refrain from citations in the Bible. It was composed by those in power during different zeitgeists for diverse political reasons, over the couse of 3,000 years.

2006-11-14 08:55:13 · update #2

13 answers

This question has been asked about eight million times here. Honestly.

The answer is yes. Look to the heart of an unbeliever for confirmation.

Peace.

2006-11-14 08:46:19 · answer #1 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 0 1

The Paradox of the Stone

Some of the various arguments for atheism claim that the concept of God is incoherent, that there are logical problems with the existence of such a being. Perhaps the best known of these is the paradox of the stone: Can God create a stone so heavy that he cannot lift it?

Either God can create such a stone or he can’t.

If he can’t, the argument goes, then there is something that he cannot do, namely create the stone, and therefore he is not omnipotent.

If he can, it continues, then there is also something that he cannot do, namely lift the stone, and therefore he is not omnipotent.

Either way, then, God is not omnipotent. A being that is not omnipotent, though, is not God. God, therefore, does not exist.

Problems With the Paradox of the Stone

Although this simple argument may appear compelling at first glance, there are some fundamental problems with it. Before identifying these problems, however, it is necessary to make clear what is meant by “omnipotence”.

Christian philosophers have understood omnipotence in different ways. René Descartes though of omnipotence as the ability to do absolutely anything. According to Descartes, God can do the logically impossible; he can make square circles, and he can make 2 + 2 = 5.

Thomas Aquinas had a narrower conception of omnipotence. According to Aquinas, God is able to do anything possible; he can part the red sea, and he can restore the dead to life, but he cannot violate the laws of logic and mathematics in the way that Descartes thought that he could.

If Descartes’ conception of omnipotence is correct, then any attempt to disprove God’s existence using logic is hopeless. If God can do the logically impossible, then he can both create a stone so heavy that he cannot lift it, and lift it, and so can do all things. Yes, there’s a contradiction in this, but so what? God can, on this understanding of omnipotence, make contradictions true.

Descartes’ understanding of omnipotence therefore doesn’t seem to be vulnerable to the paradox of the stone. Descartes can answer the question Yes without compromising divine omnipotence.

Aquinas’ understanding of omnipotence, which is more popular than that of Descartes, also survives the paradox of the stone. For if God exists then he is a being that can lift all stones. A stone that is so heavy that God cannot lift it is therefore an impossible object. According to Aquinas’ understanding of omnipotence, remember, God is able to do anything possible, but not anything impossible, and creating a stone that God cannot lift is something impossible.

Aquinas can therefore answer the question No without compromising divine omnipotence.

The paradox of the stone, then, can be resolved; it fails to show that there is an incoherence in the theistic conception of God, and so fails to demonstrate that God does not exist.

2006-11-14 08:56:28 · answer #2 · answered by Bruce Leroy - The Last Dragon 3 · 0 0

Ever seen Aladin, the cartoon version? The genie in the movie grants a wish that this person could become the greatest sorcerer in the world. Then, Aladin tells the evil sorcerer that since the genie had created him, the genie could still destroy him. Why? Because a genie is in a different sort of class then the sorcerer. The sorcerer then wished to be a genie, his wish was granted and he had omnipotent power, but found he could not use it the way he wanted because of the rules. Same sort of thing goes for God. Think of it like this: God is the rule maker. If s/he says s/he cannot lift the rock, then s/he can't, not because of limited power, but because of the rules God has made for his/her self. So, the question is not "can s'he create a stone s/he cannot lift", but will s/he.

2006-11-14 08:55:19 · answer #3 · answered by t.c.trumpet 2 · 0 0

This is exactly why the concept of omnipotence can't fit within the limits of humanity. It's like saying if all things are possible then doesn't that make impossibility an impossibility?

To answer the question, simply, however, yes. God can choose not to be omnipotent.

2006-11-14 08:50:23 · answer #4 · answered by Shawn L 2 · 0 0

Titus 3:9, read it. It defines this question.

2006-11-14 08:50:40 · answer #5 · answered by thstuff9946 2 · 0 0

God is infinite. Everything else is finite, including, sadly, your intellect.If you knew Him, you wouldn't be rehashing old logical absurdities.

2006-11-14 08:47:46 · answer #6 · answered by Paulie D 5 · 0 0

Does this question always get asked every day in here?

2006-11-14 08:46:09 · answer #7 · answered by Bow down to me 3 · 0 0

omnipotent- all powerful, possessing unlimited power-

YES- God can do anything

2006-11-14 08:49:18 · answer #8 · answered by yeppers 5 · 0 0

No cuz He can do anything He wants
repeated posting

2006-11-14 08:45:46 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

simple answer,God cannot contradict Himself, and this would be sheer contradiction.

2006-11-14 08:46:37 · answer #10 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers