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John 1:1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. Is the word “god” here wrongly translated? Notice this example.

In the pre-Christian times was the human judge, and the human judge was [walking] with [the] God, and the human judge was [God or god]? How would you translate theos? God or god? Israelit judges in the OT are called gods.(John 10:34)
Remember Jehovah is called "God of gods" Deut 10:17. It is wrong to say that Jehovah is called "God of FALSE gods". Just like saying "King of kings" other kings exist. The main difference is that Jehovah God is not created but the rest of these so called "gods" are created.

Other Bible translations translated "john 1:1" as "... the Word was divine".

2006-11-14 07:21:26 · 14 answers · asked by trustdell1 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Notice also that in John 1:1, the Word was described IN the beginning with God, not BEFORE the beginning.

2006-11-14 08:01:31 · update #1

The phrase "the Word was God" is just also another English translation. The original was Greek. It depends upon the translator and the rules in Greek grammar whether to translate "theos" as God or god. Notice John 1:1 states "was WITH God". It doesn't say WITH another Godhead or with another PART OF GOD. Trinitarians believe that Jesus is WITH another part of Godhead/Trinity. The bible didn't say that.

2006-11-14 08:29:10 · update #2

14 answers

Notice, too, how other translations render this part of the verse:


1808: "and the word was a god." The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome's New Translation: With a Corrected Text.

1864: "and a god was the word." The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.

1928: "and the Word was a divine being." La Bible du Centenaire, L'Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.

1935: "and the Word was divine." The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.

1946: "and of a divine kind was the Word." Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.

1950: "and the Word was a god." New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures.

1958: "and the Word was a God." The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.

1975: "and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word." Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.

1978: "and godlike kind was the Logos." Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.

These versions make more sense than the King James because how can Jesus be with God and BE God at the same time? Also, if Jesus IS God, then that would contradict John 1:18 where it says: "No man has seen God at any time."

2006-11-14 08:12:12 · answer #1 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 1 0

You must be reading from the New World Translation which is not a real translation. The Jehovah's Witnesses changed the Bible. The verse John 1:1 actually says: "...and the Word was God". There are many verses which teach that Jesus is fully God. Some of these verses are: Hebrews 1:8 where the Father Himself calls the Son God, John 8:58 where Jesus Himself says that He is Yahweh by saying "I AM", Colossians 1 and 2, and in the end of Revelation Jesus says the same thing that the Father says about Himself in the beginning of Revelation. www.equip.org

2006-11-14 15:27:42 · answer #2 · answered by jamesdkral 3 · 1 0

You should use the only version of the Bible that translates this passage progerly. The King James Version.
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
So to make it perfectly clear, Jesus is as much God as the Father.

2006-11-14 15:25:34 · answer #3 · answered by Mark Fidrater 3 · 0 0

AT JOHN 1:1 the King James Version reads: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” Trinitarians claim that this means that “the Word” (Greek, ho lo′gos) who came to earth as Jesus Christ was Almighty God himself.

Note, however, that here again the context lays the groundwork for accurate understanding. Even the King James Version says, “The Word was with God.” Someone who is “with” another person cannot be the same as that other person. In agreement with this, the Journal of Biblical Literature, edited by Jesuit Joseph A. Fitzmyer, notes that if the latter part of John 1:1 were interpreted to mean “the” God, this “would then contradict the preceding clause,” which says that the Word was with God.

For more information please visit www.watchtower.org

2006-11-14 16:17:28 · answer #4 · answered by Learn about the one true God 3 · 1 0

It's interesting how people swear by the KJV, when in reality, it is just that --- a version. It is not even a translation, so nobody can really tell you exactly where it comes from. John 1:1 is accurately translated by Jehovah's Witnesses. The greek grammar employed in the New World Translation there is appropriate, but the KJV uses it appropriately in other instances, why not here?

For example --- in John 8:44, Jesus tells the religious leaders that they are from their father "the devil", obviously speaking of Satan. However, in John 6:70, speaking about Judas says he is "a devil". Judas was not Satan or Satan in the flesh, in fact, it does speak of Satan entering into Judas. Whether that is literal or figurative (as in enter into his heart), it still shows that they are 2 distinct people.

If you get any Greek Interlinear bible, you will clearly see that the word used to describe both individuals is "devil". When describing Satan, the Greek uses a definite article (such as "the") but not when describing Judas, there is no indefinite article (a, an, etc.) because Greek did not have one. Judas was not Satan, but he was a devil (which means slanderer).

In this instance, the KJV is correct in separating the 2 individuals --- Satan as the devil, Judas as a devil. If it employed the same principle in John 1:1, you would read "a god" when refering to Jesus.

2006-11-15 05:05:36 · answer #5 · answered by OatesATM 3 · 1 0

It seems that only Trinitarianism must rigidly insist upon the possibility that only ONE particular translation of this verse could ever be allowed; their insistence is required in an attempt to support trinitarianism's shaky tenets. So-called "unitarian" (with a lower-case "u") Christians, such as Jehovah's Witnesses, believe that Jesus the Son is divine and is a god, but is in complete subjection to and distinct from the Almighty Father (Jehovah).

Thus, any of the three translations ("divine", "a god", "god") mentioned in the question works well with a belief that the heavenly Christ Jesus is a mighty spirit creature acting as the Almighty's agent with the power to both judge and rule every angel and human. Trinitarianism requires that John 1:1 be translated with prejudice toward trinitarianism.

Interestingly, Jehovah's Witnesses teach that no salvation occurs without Christ, that accepting Christ's sacrifice is a requirement for true worship, that every prayer must acknowledge Christ, that Christ is the King of God's Kingdom, that Christ is the head of the Christian congregation, that Christ is immortal and above every creature, even that Christ was the 'master worker' in creating the universe!

Rather than quoting from such trinitarian sources as philosophy, Greek mythology, and quotes from other Babylon-loving trinitarians, Jehovah's Witnesses believe that the Scriptures alone quite plainly demonstrate that Jesus and the Almighty are separate distinct persons, and the Almighty created Jesus as His firstborn son.

(Colossians 1:15) the firstborn of all creation

(Mark 10:18) Jesus said to him: 'Why do you call me good? Nobody is good, except one, God.

(Revelation 3:14) the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God

(Philippians 2:5-6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God's form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God

(John 8:42) Neither have I come of my own initiative at all, but that One sent me forth

(John 12:49) I have not spoken out of my own impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a commandment as to what to tell and what to speak

(John 14:28) I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am

(1 Corinthians 15:28) But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him

(Matthew 20:23) this sitting down at my right hand and at my left is not mine to give, but it belongs to those for whom it has been prepared by my Father

(1 Corinthians 11:3) I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; ...in turn the head of the Christ is God

(John 20:17) I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.

(Deuteronomy 6:4) Jehovah our God is one Jehovah

(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father

Learn more!
http://watchtower.org/e/ti/
http://watchtower.org/library/ti/index.htm

2006-11-14 15:35:40 · answer #6 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 2 0

GOD is a GOD of no confusion; key words are " in the beginning"
this verse describes the deity of JESUS who is GOD the son,the second person of the trinity. Judges and kings were appointed or
by conquest. Thy word have i hid in my heart that i might not sin
against thee; who knowest the interpretation of a thing...... verses in the bible, study, just don't read your bible it will reveal GOD'S word to you.That's what i think

2006-11-14 15:49:21 · answer #7 · answered by deacon j 1 · 0 0

Let me fill it in simpler: In the beginning Jesus(Michael the angel) was, and Jesus was with God(as the angel Michael), and Jesus was a god. If you read Genesis 1:26 it says "Let US make man in OUR image" This is God talking to Jesus before his earthly apperance. Jesus was Michael in heaven.Read Revelation 12:7- when you feel like not reading anymore cause if your like me the bible is the best book in the world!!!!!!!!

2006-11-14 15:38:16 · answer #8 · answered by lee lee 3 · 0 0

Calling God the God of gods is ok. God is the God of the universe. He is over everything. He is greater than any other god man has created. Same thing with the King of kings. He is the King of all kings. No man (king) is greater than He is.

2006-11-14 15:30:44 · answer #9 · answered by Chase 2 · 0 0

Correction - "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God"

The Word tells us who God is, so the Word to us is God. God gave us the Word, so the Word was with God. God is ever present, so the Word (which is God) was there in the beginning. Since we are created in His image, we are gods in the sense that we are like Him. He created man, but then man, in his fallen nature, created other gods.

2006-11-14 15:30:04 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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