Jesus did not directly speak on it, that I know of.... Lest someone correct me and I be wrong.....
But, what you are looking for is found in Romans..... Chapter 1:21-32
24 Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves:
25 Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.
26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
PLEASE NOTE: I do not write this to condemn any but to reference a very valuable writting on the subject......
Your sister,
Ginger
2006-11-13 19:17:53
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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You do keep in mind that the first bible had the guidelines on sex slaves in it? to boot the bible is over 2 thousand years previous, and if this land might want to of stayed community American. (not likely on a rant about that.) Then the land might want to have community American beliefs. that is purely because christ replaced into fed to us from the very time the mayflower arrived and far formerly. as an example, Mexicans. In a everyday Mexican American residing house, will be about 2 of those candles which have jesus searching at you consisting of his hand outstretched. If the Spanish hadn't replaced thier religon by rigidity, they could nonetheless have many gods likely. What i'm putting forward is that the bible looks helpful because it survived the try of time, it doesn't recommend that is authentic.
2016-11-29 03:12:41
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answer #2
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answered by ? 4
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No Jesus never addressed Homosexuality . This was carried over from the O.T. and is subject to some debate as to wither it really applies to homosexuality its self. One of the most often quoited verses is about not spilling your seed on/in infertile ground . This is meant more for Farmers about watching how they spread their seeds to maximize the crop yield so all will have plenty to eat during the fallow season.
The other ones are hygiene type times when a man or women are clean or unclean for having sex.
Only the one section quoted by Toni has anything to do with Homosexuality in the whole Jewish/Christian Bible.
2006-11-13 19:37:37
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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You might want to look at it like this: Jesus said" The Father and I are one." No one comes to the Father except through Me. Since the trinity meaning one God but three God heads in one God. is the case. God the Father and Jesus (the Son) are both God. Look at it like a team. In basketball there are five different players, meaning five separate people per team, on the floor at the same time. They are five players but ONE team. It's a team effort and not just individual efforts. That being the case, Jesus was included with or as God when the world was created. God created man AND woman. Not man and man. Not woman and woman. But man and woman. As such, that is the way God intends it...man and woman. Consider the flood. By Gods direction Noah took two of each species on the ark. Had Noah took two male and NO female of anything (or visa verse) how could there be any reproduction? Offspring, babies, can't be born by two of the same sex. God/Jesus commanded things to be done that way. So obviously Jesus wants it that way. His actions in the above are proof of this.
2006-11-13 19:40:28
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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All scripture is God breathed, that is inspired by God through the holy spirit as stated in 2 Timothy 3:14.
You cannot discount Paul, or Levitcus (God's law), without then discounting the word of God and therefore his Son.
Christ upheld the Law, all forms of sodomy including homosexuality were an abomination according to this law.
Christ did NOT come to earth to simply reaffirm the Law, the jewish people already knew the law. Homosexuals, no different from the cumpulsive liar, or the petty thief are clearly lost. Therefore, it was not his purpose, nor was it necessary to reaffirm every little thing that was already known and written.
He left this to his apostles and other teachers and they did it quite well.
2006-11-13 19:24:51
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answer #5
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answered by eliteflycaster 2
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Ive asked this question many a times. Peopel dont want to think past what they have been taught. JESUS NEVER SAID ANYTHING BAD ABOUT HOMOSEXUALITY! AT ALL!!!!!!!!!!!!! 33yrs on this earth and he never encountered one homosexual?! COme on, either he didnt have a problem with it or they left what ever encounters he did have out of their gospels. Every culture in the world from African to Native American all support omosexuals as Two SPirited peple or very spiritual beings in touch with ther masculine and feminine saide. They were always Shamans, Medicine men, And Advisors. Its only HOmophobic, Female suppressing, Civil Rights Denying "christin" bible thumpers who ahve a problem with them.
2006-11-13 23:40:35
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answer #6
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answered by david s 4
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There aren't any. Jesus did not directly address homosexuality just as he did not address a host of other modern ideas that we think are important today. Jesus wanted to bring people closer to God. He fulfilled an ancient prophecy and proved his authority to do so over and over again to anyone who cared to witness it.
That being said, don't assume that makes ungodly things like homosexuality "okay". Homosexuality is mentioned elswhere in the Bible as an abomination before God, and an unnatural way of being sexual. Although Jesus ended Judaic Law, it does not change the NATURE of what is Godly or not.
It may interest you to know that Jesus spoke openly about the importance of the institution of marriage between a man and a woman. In fact, he pointed out that divorce was impossible except in matters of infidelity.
Now, if Jesus ALSO pointed out that fornication (sex outside of marriage) was sinful, and marriage is between a man and a woman, what does that tell us about homosexuality?
Also, Jesus spoke out against "effeminate men": there is scholarly debate as to exactly what this means, but consider what he was arguing FOR...men to behave in a natural fashion, with honor toward their families, honoring their fathers and mothers, carrying their lineage forward, not fornicating, upholding the institution of marriage (if they desire marriage)...kind of says something, doesn't it?
Read this if you have the courage:
http://gcc.savvior.com/Did%20Jesus%20Bless%20Homosexuality.php?view_all=1
2006-11-13 19:21:55
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answer #7
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answered by roberticvs 4
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There is virtual agreement among all who participate today in the homosexuality debate that Old and New Testament contain some unequivocal condemnations of homosexual practice. These sentences are:
"You shall not lie with a male as with a woman: it is an abomination" (Lev 18:22).
"If a man lies with a male as with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall be put to death: their blood is upon them" (Lev 20:13).
"God gave them up to degrading passions. Their women exchanged natural intercourse for unnatural, and in the same way also the men, giving up natural intercourse with women, were consumed with passion for one another. Men committed shameless acts with men and received in their own persons the due penalty for their error" (Rom 1:26-27).
"Do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived! Fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, male prostitutes, sodomites, thieves, the greedy, drunkards, revilers, robbers - none of these will inherit the kingdom of God" (1 Cor 6:9-10).
The condemnation of the law applies for those "who kill their father or mother, for murderers, fornicators, sodomites, slave traders, liars, perjurers" ( 1 Tim 1:9-10).
It is debated which precise social behavior is meant by "male-prostitutes" and "sodomites" in the last two quotes but it is not controversial that they include homogenital activity.
Other passages in Old and New Testament are often understood to incriminate homosexuality also: the gang-rapes told in Gen 19:1-11 and Judg 19-21 may not see the homosexuality involved in the narratives to be the crime deserving punishment, although Jude 7 is evidence that in New Testament times the story of Sodom and Gomorrah was read as prime illustration of "sexual immorality" and "unnatural lust".
2006-11-13 19:17:07
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answer #8
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answered by toni 2
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The most direct thing Christ said was "I did not come to abolish the law..." (and "the law" was clear regarding homosexuality...see Leviticus). But I think even more pertanant is the fact that Paul wrote about homosexuality, and he said to the Galatians, "11I want you to know, brothers, that the gospel I preached is not something that man made up.
12I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by revelation from Jesus Christ."
If we think that what Paul wrote was simply Paul's opinion and didn;t come from Christ, we essentially demolish a critical pillar of the foundation of Christianity....In fact, it would be like saying that God never said anything about the Ten Commandments, but rather that all simply came from Moses....
2006-11-13 19:15:49
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answer #9
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answered by whitehorse456 5
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The bible is the inspired inerrant word of God. So, I'm not sure what you mean?? The words were not Paul's words, they were God's, who spoke to him through the Holy Spirit. The same God that destroyed 2 cities in the O.T. is the same God that condemns homosexuality in the N.T. He is unchanging and not a liar.
edit: Jesus Christ was/is God...
2006-11-13 19:20:08
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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