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I know there are obvious differences between the two countries but I've always thought of it as similar just like Japan and China. But they are different and both beautiful. ;)

2006-11-12 11:39:19 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Languages

10 answers

Japan and China are totally different. Anyways, Spain and Mexico speak the same language: Castillian Spanish. And unlike the American and British English, all the Castillian Spanish speaking countries follow the same grammar and orthography rules.
This occurs because the Castillian Spanish language is controlled and always being revised by the Real Academia de la Lengua Española (Royal Spanish Language Academy) which is the one that authorizes dictionaries and says which words exist or not.
You might find uncommon words in both countries because those are regional words or slang, but that happens everywhere. (The same happens in some states in the US, some people in North Carolina might use some words that someone in CA don't use)
By the way, there are other Spanish languages that are not Castillian, such as Catalan, Basque, Calo, Aragon, Aranes, etc.

Added Note:
You can't make an analogy with American and British English. Both of them have different ways of writing words(color, colour, teather, theatre). They even have American English and British English dictionaries.
Castillian Spanish recognizes only one way to write things, the way approved by the Real Academia Española.

2006-11-12 11:51:00 · answer #1 · answered by Sergio__ 7 · 1 0

It is mostly the same. Like English in England vs. America, there are some minor differences in manner of speaking. In Spain they use a word to mean "you all" and to address "you all" that is less common in Latin America. In Spain they pronounce some things differently, one common difference is the change in the sound of the 'c'. I would study Spanish from Spain so that you can know everything just to be sure.

2016-03-28 03:37:53 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

It's the same Spanish language, with some regional slang words in every country. The basic difference is the pronounciation of the letters "z" and "c" (before e and i).

Example: zapato (shoe). In Spain, they would pronounce it "thopoto" (more or less). In Latin America, they would pronounce it "ssopoto".

Maceta (planter). In Spain, they would say "mahthehtah". In Latin America, "mahssehtah".

But grammar and vocabulary are the same.

It's like the difference between British English and American English.

I hope this makes sense!

2006-11-12 11:52:42 · answer #3 · answered by Belindita 5 · 0 0

Its like the difference between the English spoken in different parts of the US, Great Britain, or other English speaking countries. The majority of the language remains the same, but there are regional differences.

2006-11-12 11:43:02 · answer #4 · answered by Carole 5 · 0 0

Yes,Spain speaks what is called Castilian. The difference is probably Mexico has more slang. A spanish book will teach you the way Mexicans speak.

2006-11-12 11:50:55 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Spain' Spanish is the original and Mexico's Spanish is similar but it is already mixed with Indian or Mayan terms. Japanese and Chinese are entirely different languages.

2006-11-12 11:48:14 · answer #6 · answered by FRAGINAL, JTM 7 · 1 1

yes. I was in spain last year and spoke the Spanish that I learned from co-workers. My aunt who lives in Madrid knew immediately that I was speaking "south american spanish" she called it. They also speak a different type of spanish in Barcelona which is more of a mix of spanish and french called Catalan or Castillian spanish.

2006-11-12 11:46:27 · answer #7 · answered by fade_this_rally 7 · 0 0

Yes, the words are a little different and the accent is somewhat different. Muchlike the southern texas state's accent differs from the northern states' accent.

2006-11-12 11:42:01 · answer #8 · answered by peppermint_paddy 7 · 1 0

Just think of the difference in English spoken in UK and US.

2006-11-12 11:52:31 · answer #9 · answered by oksana_rossi 3 · 1 1

not at all, it is the same, we only speak a little diferent when we use some words

2006-11-12 11:45:39 · answer #10 · answered by YARENY C 1 · 2 1

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