Slaves, obey your earthly masters with deep respect and fear. Serve them sincerely as you would serve Christ. (Ephesians 6:5)
2006-11-12 09:19:23 · 17 answers · asked by Dr. Brooke 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The bible is not the word of god.
2006-11-12 09:36:36 · answer #1 · answered by i_hate_liberals666 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it's right. What exactly are you asking? They had slaves then, and God was saying slaves should obey their masters, is that so hard to comprehend?
Even further back they had polygamy, and God told wives to serve their husband; for example Abraham need to be served by his wives. Are you going to suggest those passages are wrong too?
God existed way back in Bible days, and in those days God did a lot of stuff and told people how to behave.
So what are you suggesting by the question? Sounds to me like you're trying to insinuate something here. If so, what?
2006-11-12 17:28:07 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not wrong either, God was teaching us not to cause a rift, he was speaking to all mankind, you just pulled out the slave part, you have to take in the entire concept. You should love all- enemy, friend, master, all. However MAN used slaves, God had to include them too. After all Jesus performed the most lowly of duty( that would have been given to a lowly servant girl) he washed the feet of his disciples. Signifing if he God in the flesh is willing to serve his followers must also serve, willing to serve in a way that gloifies God.John13:6-20. Jesus was willing to serve to show we should all serve each other. This is pleasing to God.
2006-11-12 17:36:19 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
verse 9 continues: "And masters, do the same things to them, and give up the threatening, knowing that both their Master and yours is in heaven, and there is no partiality with HIM" Slavery was an established fact in Paul's day. Masters had the power of life and death over their slaves, and could kill them at will without any fear of reprisal from the Roman government. Paul's message was the same to both - treat each other right !
2006-11-12 17:27:10 · answer #4 · answered by wefmeister 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There were still slaves in that time and it remained that way for many years afterward. In the same chapter, however, it is said," And, ye masters, do the same things unto them, forbearign threatening: knowing that you Mastr is also in Heaven; neither is there respect of persons with him."
So even though slaves were permissible in the time frame of which you speak, it was commanded by Christ that the Master should not threaten them but treat them well as they will be servants unto the Lord one day as well.
2006-11-12 17:24:41 · answer #5 · answered by mortgagegirl101 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It's an early example of someone, in this case probably the disciple Paul, twisting the good intent of religion for thier own purposes. Why should slaves look upon their earthy masters as though they were christ? - because he was one of those earthly masters, and it served his purpose to make his slaves think they were doing god's work.
2006-11-12 17:24:56 · answer #6 · answered by rchlbsxy2 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
What's your question. There's also reference that there are no slaves and no masters...
The reason slaves were told to obey their masters was because social upheaval wasn't seen as necessary since they thought Jesus was going to come back. However, Jesus did not come back as the New Testament authors expected.
2006-11-12 17:23:00 · answer #7 · answered by Mrs. Pears 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As long as you understand the term "slaves."
This verse does not promote slavery, but promotes faithful servanthood.
The horrors of slavery in the South in the 19th Century does not give accurate depiction of being a servant.
If you are employed, you are a servant to your employer.
If you are servant (as in 'house staff'), then you are a servant to your employer.
Also, indentured slaves were common at the time because they were generally working off a debt, which under Jewish Law, would subsequently be forgiven after 7 years of service. (Year of Jubilee).
2006-11-12 17:26:35 · answer #8 · answered by Bobby Jim 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it is not wrong. God is not pro-slavery but not anti- slavery either. God tries to teach us through examples in the Bible of various slaves that we should never get overwhelmed by our circumstances. True happiness can be found no matter what station or position we hold in life. So, the matter is too trivial for Him to take sides on.
Blessed Be
2006-11-12 17:22:47 · answer #9 · answered by Celestian Vega 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The question is not whether it was wrong or right....The question is why? Why would God say this? It is not wrong....As I said before, it's probably symbolism for something else. We are slaves to God, therefore, we are to obey His Word. Maybe He was using that to get us humans thinking about how we need to be more faithful to Him and spread His Word.
2006-11-12 17:23:08 · answer #10 · answered by Kiara 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i think this is a dead subject but i will entertain the subject once more. slavery in itself is not wrong. it's the mistreatment of a slave which is wrong. slavery was the custom, we cant deny it. who Paul is referencing are the slaves who converted to Christianity. He was urging them to serve their master like they serve their heavenly Father. He's not condoning the state that they are in, He's urging them to succeed in whatever circumstance they may find themselves.
2006-11-12 17:25:44 · answer #11 · answered by Chase S 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋