Jehovah's Witnesses say no and quote both Matthew 5:27-28 and Exodus 20:14 (the Seventh Commandment). Illogical? Yes, because the Seventh Commandment constitutes the rule of law against the premeditated crime of adultery perpetrated by humans. Moreover, the Ten Commandments comprise the law of God; a law that is LOVE; and, the fulfilling of which is LOVE. By contrast, the Seventh Commandment is entirely different and seperate from Matthew 5, which refers to the physical law of divorce. According to Deut. 24:1, divorce comes from a CODE of physical laws known as the works of the law; whereas, the Ten Commandments are spiritual. (Romans 7:14) That being said, Matthew 5, merely shows the spiritual intent of the law against Adultery. Question: do I speak the truth?
2006-11-12 04:02:07 · 6 answers · asked by spokesman_us 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
No, Jesus didn't indicate a division between the "10 Commandments" and the remaining laws.
He divided the "OT" or Hebrew scriptures in the Law and the Prophets.
When asked which was the "Greatest" Commandment" he quoted Deut. chapter 6, not chapter 5.
If you want to disprove JW's try studying with them. I know many who did that and are some of the most zealous witnesses I know.
2006-11-16 02:39:02 · answer #1 · answered by TeeM 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
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2016-12-28 19:37:13 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The first four Commandments refer to our relationship with GOD and the last six refer to the relationship we have with each other. Examine the 10 closely and you will see this clearly.
The Law of Love IS the Ten Commandments. JESUS was quoting the OT when HE stated these commandments.
2006-11-12 04:04:14 · answer #3 · answered by Exodus 20:1-17 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, you don't speak the truth.
Keep it simple guy.
"premeditated crime of adultery"? See how you're blowing it up?
Adultery in almost all countries, ethnic groups and religious circles is a no-no.
The Bible is simple and clear about it being a sin, punishable to the unrepentant by God. It is a serious act, that can end with justifiable earthly consequences which can include divorce.
2006-11-12 04:09:19 · answer #4 · answered by rangedog 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus didn't "divide" the law, He expanded our understanding of it. The intent of that portion of his sermon was to counter the teaching of the Pharisees who thought that only an outward observance of the law was sufficient to live a life that was acceptable to God. That's why Jesus said:
Matthew 5:20 For I say unto you, That except your righteousness shall exceed the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, ye shall in no case enter into the kingdom of heaven.
2006-11-12 04:34:13 · answer #5 · answered by Martin S 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You were a slave to the Law,you are now free of the Law.
2006-11-12 04:05:07 · answer #6 · answered by ? 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋