explain I Corinthians 15:29?

Question

"Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? Why are they then baptized for the dead?"

Could somebody please help me understand this verse? I read it last night and couldn't remember ever seeing it before, even though I've read this chapter many, many times. What does it mean to be 'baptized for the dead?' Do some people become baptized on behalf of somebody that is already dead?

Answer 1

No, this verse is asking why people do it. After death, there is nothing you can do; the time to confess Christ is while you live. By the way, there are varous cults who have totally misinterpreted this verse. They do baptise for dead relatives. Remember, when you interpret the bible, you don't take just one verse....we have to compare scripture to scripture. The bible says it is appointed for a man to die once and then judgment; no second chances after death.

Answer 2

Other religions do -- "they". Paul was explaining the absurdity of not believing in the resurrection (see verse 12). In other words, "if even heathen believe in an after-life, why don't you Christians who have better assurance of it?"

"...it is also observed, that the Jews, as well as other nations, have used various rites and ceremonies about their dead, and among the rest, the washing of dead bodies before interment; see (Acts 9:37) and this by some is thought to be what is here referred to; and the reasoning is, if there is no resurrection of the dead, why all this care of a dead body? why this washing of it? it may as well be put into the earth as it is, since it will rise no more..." (John Gill's Exposition of the Bible, 1 Corinthians 15:29)

"THEY . . . which are baptized for the dead" -- third person; a class distinct from that in which the apostle places himself, "WE" (1 Corinthians 15:30); first person. ALFORD thinks there is an allusion to a practice at Corinth of baptizing a living person in behalf of a friend who died unbaptized; thus Paul, without giving the least sanction to the practice, uses an ad hominem argument from it against its practicers, some of whom, though using it, denied the resurrection: "What account can they give of their practice; why are they at the trouble of it, if the dead rise not?" (Commentary Critical and Explanatory
on the Whole Bible, Jameison-Faussett-Brown)

Answer 3

Apparently some in Corinth were being baptized on behalf of others who had already died. This practice is not mentioned elsewhere in the Bible or in other ancient writings. Numerous explanations of the practice have been proposed, all of them speculative and none persuasive. Paul mentions the rite only to show the logical inconsistency of his opponent's position.
There was a cult near Corinth in which the members were baptized on
behalf of dead friends and relatives. Thus cult also happened to believe in a
resurrection.

Answer 4

Let's take a look at the scripture in question:

"Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead? But if there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen: And if Christ be not risen, then [is] our preaching vain, and your faith [is] also vain. Yea, and we are found false witnesses of God; because we have testified of God that he raised up Christ: whom he raised not up, if so be that the dead rise not. For if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised: And if Christ be not raised, your faith [is] vain; ye are yet in your sins. Then they also which are fallen asleep in Christ are perished. If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men most miserable. But now is Christ risen from the dead, [and] become the firstfruits of them that slept. For since by man [came] death, by man [came] also the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.
" Then [cometh] the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. The last enemy [that] shall be destroyed [is] death. For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under [him, it is] manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all. Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead? And why stand we in jeopardy every hour?" (1Corinthians 15:12-30)


Your question about I Corinthians 15:29 is a good one. It is nothing more than a poor translation from the Greek into the English. The answer as usual is in understanding the subject or the context of I Corinthians 15.

In I Corinthians 15:12, the problem at Corinth was some in the church believed there was no resurrection from the dead. What Paul does is say he saw the resurrected Christ in vision. (see Acts 9). Paul spent the entire chapter saying there was a future resurrection, and what we will look like. Read all of I Corinthians 15. That is the subject and the context flows right with the subject.

In verse 27 Paul said all things are put under control of Jesus. Then verse 28, Christ will subdue his enemies and put everything under His Father, God.

Then Paul states in verse 29, after everything is in control by God, "Why else would people be baptized, just to be dead?" (No resurrection). Then Paul goes on with the subject, " . . . if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized, for the dead?" (or just be dead?)

Paul is simply stating that there is no reason to be baptized if you are not to be resurrected. Verse 29 is just a bad English in the King James translation, but the subject makes it clear.

Other Recommended Bible Study Materials:

Paul and the Law: Understanding the "Hard Sayings"
Answer Given By: Art Mokarow

Answer 5

The question does seem rhetorical. Paul askes why do people baptise for the dead if the dead rise not at all. Basically if the dead don't rise (or arn't resurrected) then there is no point in someone being baptised for them. As for the practice of baptism for the dead, it was baptism by a live person in place of someone who was dead. Paul taught that we will rise after death in what is called a resurrection. Our bodies will reunite with our spirits. Because Christ was resurrected so can we. Baptism was taught as an important ordinance to be done here on earth, that is why people we getting baptised in proxy for their deceased loved ones. If we don't rise at all, then baptism for the dead would be pointless.

Answer 6

Many suggestions have been offered for the puzzling expression baptized for the dead. There are up to 200 different explanations for the passage; a summary is given by K. C. Thompson, “I Corinthians 15,29 and Baptism for the Dead,” Studia Evangelica 2.1 (TU 87), 647-59. The most likely interpretation is that some Corinthians had undergone baptism to bear witness to the faith of fellow believers who had died without experiencing that rite themselves. Paul’s reference to the practice here is neither a recommendation nor a condemnation. He simply uses it as evidence from the lives of the Corinthians themselves to bolster his larger argument, begun in 15:12, that resurrection from the dead is a present reality in Christ and a future reality for them. Whatever they may have proclaimed, the Corinthians’ actions demonstrated that they had hope for a bodily resurrection.

Answer 7

Some believers were baptized on behalf of others who had died unbaptized. Nothing more is know about this practice, but it obviously affirms a belief in the resurrection. Paul is not promoting baptism for the dead; he is illustrating his argument that the resurrection is a reality.

Answer 8

Basically I agree with Esther's answers. Paul is asking a rhetorical question which could be rephrased in this manner:
"The dead aren't rising, so what else can the people do who are being baptized for them? Why bother doing it at all?"

However, be careful in taking one verse by itself and seeking an interpretation or explanation.

Answer 9

Some believers were baptized on behalf of others who had died unbaptized. Nothing more is known about this practice, but it obviously affirms a belief in resurrection. Paul is not promoting baptism for the dead; he is illustrating his argument that the resurrection is a reality.

Answer 10

There is a possibility that Paul is talking about people that are spiritually dead. So what point is baptizing them? (saving them) and that God brings dead things to life especially @ the resurrection. So in that way, nobody is beyond saving even the people that appear to be spiritually dead. I used to be an atheist and spiritually dead but I got saved!

Answer 11

in the New American Bible the footnotes are as follows:
15:29-34
paul concludes hs treatment of logical inconsistencies with a listing in mics. Christiasn practices that woud be meaningless in the Ressurection were not a fact.
15:29
Baptized for the dead - thispractice is not further explained here n ot is it necessarily mentioned with approval, but Paul cites is as something intheir experience that attests in one more way to believe in the ressurection.


when i first read it i thought of the mormon's who baptize people over and ver in the name of those that are dead.