what would Jesus do as I am a Jew and learned he is the Messiah to understand why sin has pleasure but Jesus has treasure and joy beyond compare.
2006-11-10 21:16:45 · 6 answers · asked by Alan I 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It means that sin has its pleasures, but the pleasures are in an evil mode. Obviously sin has to be pleasurable or no one would commit it. The Bible is teaching people to search for untainted happiness. How exactly pleasure can be tainted is another issue.
2006-11-10 21:30:02 · answer #1 · answered by jacinablackbox 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Friend, I am for the Jews, I am a gentile & I pray for the peace of Jerusalem, What that verse means is that if a person continue in their sins they only have joy for a very short season, But in Jesus Christ we have joy for eternalty, All sinners will be cast into the lake of fire. Many thinks well I probaly live till they are 80 yrs old. Well that 80 yrs. is a very short season. Compare to eternalty.
2006-11-11 06:18:28 · answer #2 · answered by birdsflies 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It means the wicked will revel in their wickedness for a short time before the end of days.
Larry T
2006-11-11 05:26:22 · answer #3 · answered by Larry T 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Indeed, this is a warning - sin may seem ok, but there is a judgement day coming - do not be fooled.
Blessings upon you, wise one.
c you later
2006-11-11 05:55:45 · answer #4 · answered by tomkat1528 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If sin didn't have pleasure as an enticement, nobody would sin.
2006-11-11 05:53:40 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
are you David Israel?
were'nt you canned?
Go back to where you came from.
2006-11-11 05:21:37 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋