Based on New Testament Apostleship and Holy Spirit blessing what is sexual sin based on the details below?

Question

Acts 15:28,29

For it seemed good to the Holy Ghost, and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things; That ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood, and from things strangled, and from fornication: from which if ye keep yourselves, ye shall do well.

Notwitstanding the order given by scripture to obey the secular, civil law of the government of which you are a citizen,
the scripture in the context referenced said that concerning the civil Laws being debated at the time, such as circumcision, Christians were no longer to be burden by the attempted control of others of any of those civil laws of the OT any longer save the ones mentioned. To consider and answer correctly one must understand the truth by dividing between the civil and moral law of the Old Testament. Why because Jesus said the Pharisees kept the civil to the letter, but were inside full of dead men’s bones because of disobeying the moral law which is hidden but from God.

Understanding the civil law extrapolation give by the apostles to New Testament Christians, to try and answer the question then of its definition of “sexual sin” we must use the language used in the verse which at its root was clearly “pornea” which meant in the Greek commerce in or forced sex (prostitution, rape, etc). That is all it meant and well should be because at its essence it would have to because it would violate the standing moral law of loving your neighbor as yourself. Even unto Latin , “fornix” meant trafficking in sex, it was not until the 1300s after the Normandy Invasion of England and the evolution from old English (Anglo-Saxon language) to the middle English being constructed by the scribes of the day that the English word as we know it and it was defined for us appeared. It was defined by the dogma of the prevailing church of the time and the traditions of mean and not the original languages and intent of the scripture.

. This would mean that under the New Testament the only civil law that would apply as burden to us as the original languages and apostles intended, not the scribes 1300 years later, relating to “sexual sin “ would be the Greek “pornea” or commerce or forced sex. Would it not? Keep in mind those that created the English definitions we use today say monks should not marry, and early on the first centuries after Christ tried to create dogma , twisting Jesus’ words saying that no Christian should marry or have sex ever. Traditions of men and the word of God are too very different things. Is it not possible that the Adversary is using a tradition of men hidden to the unstudied in the midst of antiquity for us to hate our neighbors because some want to control their sexual lives, when if according to the original scriptures, unless they are involved in commerced or forced sex, by “pornea” they should be “burdened” by no man?

To the question of the author of the words -- Those are my words. And with this subject there is no simpler way to try and address it. My focus in college was on writing and critical synthesis, it is my hobby and vocation. All input regarding the question is appreciated it will further my research. Thank you.

To those that try to assert that this approach means opening the pandora's box of sexual deviance, please consider all of the premise. It was stated and the scripture in whole with out contradiction says that the law of love as defined in multiple places must be followed and secular law to which you are bound by a citizen. These considered apply a very consecrated requirement on any marriage or sexual relationship. But what people do not like is that it places the relationship between the people and God , sort of like our Salvation and not controled or judged by men. Many pharasaical people institutions with their own dogmas to teach do not like that liberyt in Christ and the freedom from burdens it provides. In quoting Paul and not bringing his bservation in line with temple prostitution, which is "pornea" , do you so eagerly promote his writings that women should not speak in church and should not wear jewlery or are you selective in you memory of his admonishments. Those who

desire to say the OT civil law still applies , should we stone the rebellious child as command in the OT and should a brother today go in to his brother's wife if she has been widow of him to give here child as the OT law suggested within its sexual civil laws.... You can not try and apply any of the civil law of the OT except for what was left us in Acts 15 without being under burden of all of it. And under that weight of the law we are all worthy of death.

Answer 1

Fornication, sex between an unmarried man and an unmarried woman, is contrary to their human dignity and the dignity of human sexuality.

Judeo-Christian tradition has taught for thousands of years:
1. Single people should be celibate.
2. Married people should be faithful to each other (adultery is wrong).

The Catholic Church recognizes the power of sex when it teaches, "Sexuality affects all aspects of the human person in the unity of his body and soul."

Chastity means the successful integration of sexuality within the person. A chaste person's body and spirit lives in unity and opposes any behavior that would impair that unity.

The purpose of sex is to bring a husband and wife closer and to create human life.

With love in Christ.

Answer 2

Fornication in the sense you mention (prostitution or rape)is not the only sexual sin mentioned in the New Testament. In the letter to the Hebrews (13:4), adultery is placed under God's judgement along with fornication. In I Corinthians (6:9), male prostitution and homosexuality are also named as sins.
The only expression of sex that has ever been approved of by God is marital union. Jesus Himself made this clear in an answer to the scribes and Pharisees (their question was about yet another sexual sin--divorce), in which He quoted Genesis 2:24--"For this reason, a man shall leave his father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife, and the two shall be one flesh."
I don't know where your second quote comes from, so I can't read it in context to argue with it; but one of your other statements--about "loving your neighbor"--is just flat wrong. The word for "love" in all the NT quotes of "love your neighbor as yourself" is agapao, meaning a sacrificial love, one that counts others as better than himself. A sexual love would be indicated by a variant on the word eros...which, by the way, never appears in the Greek New Testament.

Answer 3

I think you need to include everything else as,

Illicit sex relations outside of Scriptural marriage. The Hebrew verb za·nah′ and its related forms convey the idea of harlotry, immoral intercourse, fornication, or prostitution. (Ge 38:24; Ex 34:16; Ho 1:2; Le 19:29) The Greek word translated “fornication” is por·nei′a. Regarding the meanings of por·nei′a, B. F. Westcott in his book Saint Paul’s Epistle to the Ephesians (1906, p. 76) says: “This is a general term for all unlawful intercourse, (I) adultery: Hos. ii. 2, 4 (LXX.); Matt. v. 32; xix. 9; (2) unlawful marriage, I Cor. v. I; (3) fornication, the common sense as here [Eph 5:3].” Bauer’s Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament (revised by F. W. Gingrich and F. Danker, 1979, p. 693) defines por·nei′a as “prostitution, unchastity, fornication, of every kind of unlawful sexual intercourse.” Porneia is understood to involve the grossly immoral use of the genital organ(s) of at least one human; also there must have been two or more parties (including another consenting human or a beast), whether of the same sex or the opposite sex. (Jude 7) The unlawful act of a rapist is fornication, but, of course, that does not make the person who is forcibly raped also a fornicator.

Answer 4

I think you are really pushing it to try and prove something that is not there. I have never seen "pornea" defined as forced sex and it would not make sence for the council to outlaw forced sex as sin: On which side the giver or the receipent. You can't make it a sin to be raped, because you have no control over that and they wouldn't tell the Christians as long as you don't rape someone you are doing well. I think you are out to lunch! This whole issue was over whether Christians had to follow Jewish law and be circumcised, and the answer was no.

Answer 5

Here's the scoop on sexual sin, in the form of example:

If you are an unmarried man and look at an unmarried woman's (insert body part here) with desire, that's okay. God made that body part appealing to you so you would desire her, should you choose her for your wife.

If you are a married man and look at a womans (insert body part here) and desire to go home and have sexual relations with your wife, then you are also okay. You desire your wife and that's a good thing!

If you are a married man and look at a womans (insert body part here) and know that in your heart, if that woman approached you for sex, you would do it, then you have committed the act of adultery already.

It's what is in your heart that matters.

Answer 6

Rom 1:28 And even as they did not think fit to have God in their knowledge, God gave them up to a reprobate mind, to do the things not right,
Rom 1:29 having been filled with all unrighteousness, fornication, iniquity, covetousness, malice, being full of envy, murder, quarrels, deceit, evil habits, becoming whisperers,

1Co 6:13 Foods for the belly, and the belly for foods, but God will destroy both this and these. But the body is not for fornication, but for the Lord, and the Lord for the body.

1Co 6:18 Flee fornication. Every sin which a man may do is outside the body, but he doing fornication sins against his own body.

1Co 10:8 Nor should we commit fornication, as some of them fornicated, and twenty three thousand fell in one day.

Gal 5:19 Now the works of the flesh are clearly revealed, which are: adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lustfulness,
Gal 5:20 idolatry, sorcery, enmities, fightings, jealousies, angers, rivalries, divisions, heresies,

Eph 5:3 But let not fornication, and all uncleanness, or greediness, be named among you, as is fitting for saints;

1Th 4:3 For this is God's will, your sanctification, for you to abstain from fornication,
1Th 4:4 each one of you to know to possess his vessel in sanctification and honor,
1Th 4:5 not in passion of lust, even as also the nations do, not knowing God;


Fornication - This was a common and almost universal sin among the ancients, as it is among the moderns. The word denotes all illicit sexual intercourse. That this was a common crime among the ancient pagan, it would be easy to show, were it proper, even in relation to their wisest and most learned men. They who wish to see ample evidence of this charge may find it in Tholuck’s “Nature and Moral Influence of Heathenism,” in the Biblical Repository, vol. ii. p. 441-464.

Answer 7

According to the Bible Jesus gave only TWO commands:
Love God
Love Each Other
Mark 12:28-31
PERIOD!!!!!!
Galatians 3:25
"Now that faith has come, we are no longer under the supervision of the law"
James 4:12
"There is only one Lawgiver and Judge, the one who is able to save and destroy. But you-who are you to judge your neighbor?"

Answer 8

Your exegesis is lacking because it fails to take into account who the writers were and what they meant by sexual immorality. For instance the Greeks had pagan temples with prostitutes in them and this was definitely considered to be a sin by the Jewish Apostles. You can verify this by looking at what the Apostle Paul wrote to the church in Corinth.

1 Corinthians 6:15 Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of an harlot? God forbid. 16 What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh. 17 But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit. 18 Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication (porneia - por-ni'-ah) sinneth against his own body. 19 What? know ye not that your body is the temple of the Holy Ghost which is in you, which ye have of God, and ye are not your own? 20 For ye are bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God's.

Prior to this portion of his epistle the Apostle Paul also describes several other forms of porneia.

KJV 1 Corinthians 6:9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, 10 Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God.

EMT 1 Corinthians 6:9 Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals, nor sodomites, 10 nor covetous, nor thieves, nor drunkards, nor abusive people, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.

porneia - to commit fornication or any sexual sin. Fornication, lewdness, or any sexual sin.

(I) Any sexual sin; coupled with moicheía (G3430), adultery (Mar_7:21), and other sins (Rom_1:29). Used generally to refer to any sexual sin (1Co_6:13, 1Co_6:18; 1Co_7:2; 2Co_12:21; Gal_5:19; Eph_5:3; Col_3:5; 1Th_4:3; Rev_9:21). In Joh_8:41, "We be not born of fornication" means, "We are not spurious children, born of a concubine, but are the true descendants of Abraham" (a.t. [Septuagint: Gen_38:24; Hos_1:2]). Specifically of adultery (Mat_5:32; Mat_19:9); of incest (1Co_5:1).

Porneía may also refer to marriages within the degrees prohibited by the Law of Moses and generally to all such intercourse as prohibited in that Law (cf. Lev. 18; Lev_20:10 ff.).

(II) Symbolically it stands for idolatry, the forsaking of the true God in order to worship idols. Since God is said to be married to His Church through Christ, then any idolatry is unfaithfulness toward God equal to sexual unfaithfulness to one's marriage partner (Rev_2:21; Rev_14:8; Rev_17:2, Rev_17:4; Rev_18:3; Rev_19:2; Sept.: Jer_3:9; Eze_16:15, Eze_16:22; Eze_23:27; Hos_2:2; Hos_4:12).

(III) Fornication as a sexual vice was common before the time of Moses and was grossly prevalent in Egypt (Gen_39:7). Prostitution was not tolerated by the Sinaitical code, being an abomination in the sight of God (Lev_19:29; Deu_23:17-18). Its price could not be accepted in the sanctuary (Mic_1:7), and death by stoning was the penalty for an unmarried woman who had concealed her crime (Deu_22:20-21). The term "strange woman" in Pro_2:16 probably referred to a harlot procured from foreigners. See also Pro_2:16-19; Pro_5:3-6; Pro_7:5-27. God's displeasure was thus incited (Jer_5:7; Amo_2:7; Amo_7:17). Such excesses were very common among the heathen in the times of the Apostles (1Co_5:1, 1Co_5:9-10; 1Co_6:9). Israel is symbolically presented as a harlot (Isa_1:21; Jer_2:20; Ezek. 16; Hos_1:2; Hos_3:1).

Answer 9

I've never seen so much BS added to such a simple and clear admonition as Acts 15:28,29

Sexual sin is extramartial, beastillty, premartial, homosexuality, and all the rest of the sexually immoral sins listed in the Bible. It's that simple.

Answer 10

What exactly is the question??

Are you saying that as a Christian it is right for me to have sex with your wife if she agrees to it? And she could also be carrying on with , say, five other men? You're comfortable with that?