2006-11-09 08:28:10 · 19 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
he gets a free pass cause he is god also right christians lolz
2006-11-09 08:29:29 · answer #1 · answered by Red Eye 4 · 3⤊ 2⤋
Jesus, yelled out Eloni, Eloni, lema sabachtani? Which means my God, my God, why have you forsaken me? Jesus did not ask this question in suprise or despair. He was quoting the first line in Pslam 22. The whole psalm is a prophecy expressing the deep agony of the Messiah's death for the worlds sin. Jesus knew he would be temporarily seperated from God the moment he took upon himelf the sins of the world. The seperation was what he dreaded as he prayed in gethsemane. The physical agony was terrible, but the spiritual alienation from God was the ultimate torture.
2006-11-09 16:38:03 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
well the revalation of that particular verse is...that God the Father cannot and will not look upon sin. The moment that Jesus dies on the cross along with him went all of our sicknesses and deseases..etc. more importantly our sins...that is why we ask for forgiveness of God the father in the name of Jesus. he is the middle man ..the thread that knits us and God together. That's why Jesus said " no man cometh unto the Father but by me." We have obtained salvation from Jesus dieing on the cross. thus giving us the scripture. The Lord Jesus will never leave us or forsake us... because he has expierienced all we would ever expierience...he the one that came to go through what we go through so he can make interecession on our behalf. or n other words.. plead our case before God the Father. so no..it was not blasphemy
2006-11-09 16:35:41 · answer #3 · answered by jovie 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Good question, but the blasphemy is not from Jesus; is from Christendom that makes Him God-man.
Jesus spoke these words in fulfillment of Psalm 22:1, which was originally written relative to David. Not that David was forsaken for impalement on any torture stake, but he was forsaken to the fury of enemies because of his faithfulness to the Kingdom covenant.
But the mere utterance of these prophetic words of Psalm 22:1 was not in itself sufficient for fulfillment of them. At the time Jesus uttered them on the torture stake they really had a background against which to be fulfilled. In this case God’s forsaking Jesus did not mean that God turned his back upon him as disapproved and condemned, but merely that God released him to the full fury of his enemies, even to the extent of allowing them to kill him. Thus God forsook or released Jesus over to his enemies, to be subject to the enemies to do whatsoever they wanted to do with him, not even shielding him from ignominious death.
2006-11-09 16:42:42 · answer #4 · answered by papavero 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was quoting Psalm 22.
He couldn't quote the whole Psalm because He was dying. Being scourged to near death and nailed to a cross so you can't breath has a way of doing that.
Please note it is a question, not a declaration.
Please note further in Psalm 22 God does not abandon him.
He could not have been spiritually alienated from God (Calvinism) because He was/is God.
2006-11-09 16:37:59 · answer #5 · answered by Br. Dymphna S.F.O 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Jesus' last words were "it is finished"...... Jesus did indeed ask why God had forsaken Him.... because in his walk on this earth Jesus was both fully God ( who indwelt the mortal body) and fully man (with all of the weaknesses of man).... when all of the sins of mankind, past, present, and future were taken in to Him God left the mortal body...because God willnot remain in the presence of sin... so in fact God did leave the mortal flesh on the cross... and that mortal fleah was sufering more teribaly thatn any mortal befor or since has ever suffered... it was natural for the mortal flesh to call out as he did.
2006-11-09 16:34:34 · answer #6 · answered by IdahoMike 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Heavenly Father was spiritually with Jesus from the beginning. For the atonement to be complete He had to withdraw His spirit for a while. This was a new and strange and lonely feeling for Jesus. It seems more like a valid question, than an angered accusation.
2006-11-09 16:31:53 · answer #7 · answered by daisyk 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
Matthew 27:46
And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit."
Luke 23:46
And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost.
It is finished.
John 19:30
When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.
I think it went, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me (pause) It is finished. Into your hands I commend my spirit".
2006-11-09 16:33:45 · answer #8 · answered by sister steph 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Mat 27:46 -
Eli, Eli ... - This language is not pure Hebrew nor Syriac, but a mixture of both, called commonly “Syro-Chaldaic.” This was probably the language which the Saviour commonly spoke. The words are taken from Psa_22:1.
My God, my God ... - This expression is one denoting intense suffering. It has been difficult to understand in what sense Jesus was “forsaken by God.” It is certain that God approved his work. It is certain that he was innocent. He had done nothing to forfeit the favor of God. As his own Son - holy, harmless, undefiled, and obedient - God still loved him. In either of these senses God could not have forsaken him. But the expression was probably used in reference to the following circumstances, namely:
1. His great bodily sufferings on the cross, greatly aggravated by his previous scourging, and by the want of sympathy, and by the revilings of his enemies on the cross. A person suffering thus might address God as if he was forsaken, or given up to extreme anguish.
2. He himself said that this was “the power of darkness,” Luk_22:53. It was the time when his enemies, including the Jews and Satan, were suffered to do their utmost. It was said of the serpent that he should bruise the heel of the seed of the woman, Gen_3:15. By that has been commonly understood to be meant that, though the Messiah would finally crush and destroy the power of Satan, yet he should himself suffer “through the power of the devil.” When he was tempted Luke 4, it was said that the tempter “departed from him for a season.” There is no improbability in supposing that he might be permitted to return at the time of his death, and exercise his power in increasing the sufferings of the Lord Jesus. In what way this might be done can be only conjectured. It might be by horrid thoughts; by temptation to despair, or to distrust God, who thus permitted his innocent Son to suffer; or by an increased horror of the pains of dying.
3. There might have been withheld from the Saviour those strong religious consolations, those clear views of the justice and goodness of God, which would have blunted his pains and soothed his agonies. Martyrs, under the influence of strong religious feeling, have gone triumphantly to the stake, but it is possible that those views might have been withheld from the Redeemer when he came to die. His sufferings were accumulated sufferings, and the design of the atonement seemed to require that he should suffer all that human nature “could be made to endure” in so short a time.
4. Yet we have reason to think that there was still something more than all this that produced this exclamation. Had there been no deeper and more awful sufferings, it would be difficult to see why Jesus should have shrunk from these sorrows and used such a remarkable expression. Isaiah tells us Isa_53:4-5 that “he bore our griefs and carried our sorrows; that he was wounded for our transgressions, and bruised for our iniquities; that the chastisement of our peace was laid upon him; that by his stripes we are healed.” He hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us Gal_3:13; he was made a sin-offering 2Co_5:21; he died in our place, on our account, that he might bring us near to God. It was this, doubtless, which caused his intense sufferings. It was the manifestation of God’s hatred of sin, in some way which he has not explained, that he experienced in that dread hour. It was suffering endured by Him that was due to us, and suffering by which, and by which alone, we can be saved from eternal death.
And, actually, these are the last words of Christ on earth:
Act 1:7 And He said to them, It is not yours to know times or seasons which the Father placed in His own authority;
Act 1:8 but you will receive power, the Holy Spirit coming upon you, and you will be witnesses of Me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judea, and Samaria, and to the end of the earth.
2006-11-09 16:36:02 · answer #9 · answered by BrotherMichael 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
God has not forsaken him because jesus is son of god and therfor we have no sin as he is the one who gave us eternal live
2006-11-09 16:30:31 · answer #10 · answered by glipps2000 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Depends where you read, in another gospel they are "It is finished" and in yet another one they are something else, cant remember what though.
Its just as blasphemous that his apostles who wrote the gospels couldnt even agree on his last words.
2006-11-09 16:34:00 · answer #11 · answered by locomexican89 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋