As written in the NT, Jesus defied certain laws of the OT such as not honoring the Sabbath, and he did not fulfill the prophecies pertaining to a messiah per http://www.simpletoremember.com/vitals/jewsandjesus.htm#1
2006-11-09 04:17:45
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answer #1
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answered by Sweetchild Danielle 7
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Despite what some Christians say, Jesus endorsed the Old Testament; its laws are not overturned.
2006-11-09 12:18:55
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Since He was prophesied about in the Old Testament approx. 300 times, yes He endorsed it.
He also fulfilled the law written in it.
He quoted it quite often. He did not defy it.
Matthew 5:17- 18
"Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I did not come to abolish but to fulfill. For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass away from the Law until all is accomplished." -Jesus Christ
If you are interested in studying the bible feel free to email me.
2006-11-09 12:27:14
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answer #3
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answered by redeemed 5
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He endorsed it.
In Matthew 5:17-19 Jesus taught, “Do not think that I came to destroy the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled. Whoever therefore breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches men so, shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever does and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.”
Jesus did not intend to sabotage the Old Testament or to work against it, but to fulfill its purpose. Jesus himself would complete the mission of the Old Testament, bring it to its intended end, and replace it with the New Testament (see also Matthew 28:18-20; Heb. 1:1, 2).
Jesus said until the old covenant was fulfilled, it would stand firm down to the smallest jot and tittle (jots and tittles are comparable to the dot above an i and the cross mark on a t). Jesus warned that anyone who broke the least commandment of the Old Testament prior to its expiration would not go unpunished.
About 30 years after Jesus gave this warning, the apostle Paul said, “neither circumcision nor uncircumcision avails anything” (Gal. 5:6; I Cor. 7:19). In the Old Testament circumcision was more than just a jot or a tittle, it was a major point of the Old Testament (Gen. 17:14). Yet, Paul taught that this part of the Old Testament was gone. Why did Paul do this? Why did Paul teach people they were no longer under the Old Testament? Paul taught this new doctrine because Jesus told him to do so (Gal. 1:11, 12).
Not only did Paul dismiss circumcision, he dismissed the dietary laws, feast laws, and even the Sabbath law (Col. 2:16,17). These were all important parts of the Old Testament, yet Paul teaches that obedience in these things is no longer required.
Let’s reason this out. Jesus said that anyone who broke the least law of the Old Testament and taught others to break the law would not go unpunished. Next, under the direction of Jesus, Paul declares the Old Testament is no longer binding. Either Paul is a false teacher or something has changed. We believe that something changed. We believe that Jesus succeeded in His mission to fulfill the Old Testament. Jesus brought the Old Testament to its intended conclusion and replaced it with a better testament, the New Testament.
2006-11-09 12:21:26
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answer #4
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answered by Gardener for God(dmd) 7
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He did both. He defied some statements, like some of them about consequences of sin because now sin can be wiped away through him.
But we also know he endorsed it because he made references to it numerous times and lived above and beyond the way the old testament said to.
2006-11-09 12:18:41
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answer #5
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answered by DrDoctor 2
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Neither. He fulfilled it Matthew 5:17.
The OT was an instruction manuel, made to help people identify the real Messiah ....Galations 3:24.
It all came to a crescendo with Jesus.
Christians proceed based on the NT, although the OT can still give alot of insights.
2006-11-09 12:21:52
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answer #6
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answered by Uncle Thesis 7
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The 'exodus' occured circa 750BC, during the collapse of the Egyptian empire, and by the time John the Baptist and Jesus were born, the Jewish faith had become a very corrupt establishment. The behaviour of Herod and Caiaphus would have been abhorrent to those architects who fled Egypt, and were to the Kabbalists. Jesus wanted to return the Jewish faith to it's roots, ergo endorsing the OT, and not overthrow the Romans, as is often mistaught. Simon felt that this was Jesus' objective, and this politicising distressed Jesus.
2006-11-09 12:21:15
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answer #7
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answered by SteveUK 5
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Actually if you do some research and read some of the OT laws, Jesus did endorse the Laws that were from God. But, according to some of the laws that Moses passed he condemmed them because they were laws of man.
Mat 19:3 Some Pharisees came to Jesus, testing Him and asking, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any reason at all?"
Mat 19:4 And He answered and said, "Have you not read that He who created them from the beginning MADE THEM MALE AND FEMALE,
Mat 19:5 and said, 'FOR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND BE JOINED TO HIS WIFE, AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH'?
Mat 19:6 "So they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together, let no man separate."
Mat 19:7 They *said to Him, "Why then did Moses command to GIVE HER A CERTIFICATE OF DIVORCE AND SEND her AWAY?"
Mat 19:8 He *said to them, "Because of your hardness of heart Moses permitted you to divorce your wives; but from the beginning it has not been this way.
Mat 19:9 "And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery."
2006-11-09 15:26:19
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answer #8
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answered by Bob 5
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The Lord Jesus Christ came to the lost sheep of the house of Israel and sent His 12 apostles to the Nation of Israel only. Matthew 15: 24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel. Matthew 10: 6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel. The Lord Jesus Christ came under the law and taught the law to Israel. Galatians 4: 4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, When He died on the cross for the sins of the world and offered salvation to all that would believe in him. He started the church (the body of Christ) with the apostle Paul and now we are not under any law. In fact, God never gave the law to any other nation but the Nation of Israel We know by nature right from wrong and never had the law. Today God is dealing with all men alike. Romans 2: 14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: Romans 6: 14 For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace. Galatians 3: 28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.
2006-11-09 12:27:53
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answer #9
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answered by Ray W 6
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If he endorsed it, then he was a liar, because he fails to meet the requirements of HaMasiach in the OT, according to the NT's telling of Jesus's life.
If he did not endorse it, then he was a false prophet and got what the Law commanded of false prophets.
Either way, Christianity is self-negating.
G-d promises that the Covenant is forever. It is not a contract that concludes when both ends fill their side of their deal. The coming of HaMasiach does NOT end the Covenant. This is another area where Christianity self-negates.
2006-11-09 12:21:46
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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