this man had her killed: John of Lancaster, 1st Duke of Bedford (20 June 1389 – 14 September 1435), also known as John Plantagenet, was the fourth son of King Henry IV of England by Mary de Bohun, and acted as Regent of England for his nephew, King Henry VI.
John of Lancaster, 1st Duke of Bedford (right).
He was created Earl of Kendal, Earl of Richmond and Duke of Bedford in 1414 by his brother, King Henry V. In 1423, he married Anne, daughter of John the Fearless, Duke of Burgundy. After Anne's death in childbirth in 1432, he married Jacquetta of Luxembourg.
when was he a pope? dude your question is invalid. only one pope had her cannonized - the man that had her executed was not a pope. besides infalliablity is not in all matters. learn a little about the denomination before you think of making fun - you're doing yourself a disservice.
2006-11-08 14:15:37
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answer #1
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answered by Marysia 7
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I'm not sure that any Pope directly ordered Joan's execution. That may have been done locally, by a regent or a bishop. Remember, there was no telephone back then, no fax lines, no internet, no CNN. These things were done locally, and unless reverse charges (or an appeal, in Joan's case) was pressed with the Vatican, many things went on without the popes direct knowledge.
Remember, Joan was "only" a woman in France. Her case wasn't "important" enough to warrant a trial before the Pope. Not Christian teaching, just the actual dealings of the times.
Look up the article about Joan of Arc on the Wikipedia site. It is really consise and well written.
2006-11-08 22:27:15
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answer #2
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answered by MamaBear 6
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You cannot be infallible and wrong. I know because I am infallible. What about the pope who had her simonized? He certainly was polished. That turtle wax gave her a whole new look. All shiny and new. Joan of Arc was about 14 when she was burned at the stake. She was the original hot chick.
2006-11-08 22:17:39
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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First of all, I am an atheist. I am not trying to defend the catholic church or the papacy, but I was raised catholic and studied theology and philosophy in college.
The concept of Papal infallibility is badly misunderstood. The teaching of the church is that the pope is infallible ONLY when he is speaking ex cathedra. This means that the pope speaks from the chair of Peter. Its only invoked very rarely.
2006-11-08 22:34:49
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answer #4
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answered by sngcanary 5
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Indeed. John-Paul II was an oxymoron; For John represents Law and Paul represents Grace, and they are "contrary things" which only mix to make "one proselyte": "more the child of hell": Mt 23.
John-Paul II quote (1999): the long tradition of sacrifice must continue in the third millennium... Obviously wrong on two accounts:
(i) the will of God: "I will have mercy, and not sacrifice"; And the "not" part is not then, not now, not ever: Ps 40:6; Ps 51:16; Hos 6:6; Mt 9:13; Mt 12:7; Heb 10.
(ii) the third day is not another millennium; For the third day is the seventh when counting the days in Jn 1 & 2:1. Not to mention the 1000 yrs in Rev 20 are as 1 day, as noted in 2Pet 3:8, one day called Easter in Acts 12, where Peter (called Satan: Mt 16:23) spent one day chained in prision.
The GRACE of our Lord Jesus Christ WITH YOU ALL. AMEN.
2006-11-08 22:26:22
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Infallibility lies not with the men, but with the God who gave us Jesus, who gave the Rock the Keys of the Kingdom. In its historical context, it is clear that Jesus passed on the sceptor, the authourity of his Kingdom and Peter did, indeed, represent Jesus in a way none of the other Apostles did. We also know from history that the papacy as we know it did not develope until the year 325 C.E. The connection is all a matter of faith.
2006-11-08 22:19:42
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answer #6
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answered by ? 4
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All popes are fallible as they are just men.
2006-11-08 22:25:18
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answer #7
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answered by freaky 3
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IT START WHEN THEY TRIED TO MAKE PETER THE FIRST POPE...AND BEEN DOWNHILL EVER SINCE......
2006-11-08 22:15:48
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answer #8
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answered by cork 7
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all of them?
2006-11-08 22:16:06
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answer #9
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answered by Cartman 5
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