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Here's why it's in the bible: the jewish tribes put the anti-homosexual-sex stuff into leviticus to divinely mandate procreative sex to increase their numbers (to defeat their enemies). The jewish people were then heavily conditioned against gay sex. Paul (Saul of Tarsus) was raised as a jew with that strong conditioning. Paul never met Jesus but he had a strong personality and took it upon himself to write letters to the early christian communities he founded to establish theology (he conferred on occasion with the apostles). Because his personality was strong, his letters were popular and the decision was made to add them to the bible (letters to the romans, to the corinthinians. etc.). None of this has anything to do with God or divine inspiration or whatever. Think about it

2006-11-08 07:57:43 · 19 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

19 answers

Yes, as does this:

All the passages in the Bible regarding "homosexuality" are either misunderstood, mistranslated or currently irrelevant.

Sodom and Gomorrah was a story that warned us against inhospitableness, xenophobia and rape. The reason for Sodom's destruction is made clear in Ezekiel 16:48-50 and it does NOT mention homosexuality.

The passages in Leviticus were part of the Holiness Code which has been done away with and is no longer binding to modern-day Christians.

1 Corinthians is a mistranslation - the word malakee in this passage is used elsewhere in the Bible to mean someone who lacks discipline or one who is morally weak, and never is it used in reference to sexuality or gender.

1 Timothy is also a mistranslation. 1 Timothy was an admonishment against male prostitution, not committed, loving same sex relationships.

The passage in Romans speaking of homosexuality being "unnatural" was misunderstood. It in fact spoke out against behavior that is uncharacteristic for THAT particular person.

2006-11-08 08:01:57 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 7 3

It doesn't matter what religion you are, whether Christian (which is what I am by the way), or whatever. If you take the time to read the Holy Bible, you will see that God destroyed a whole city because of homosexuality, paganism, blashphemy, and other things, and that city was sodom and gamora. You can check that yourself.

Secondly, in Leviticus 18:22, the Bible says " You shall not lie with a male as with a woman. It is an abomination...". And in Romans 1:27, the Bible also says " Likewise also the men, leaving the natural se of the woman, burned with their lust for one another, men with men committing what is shameful and recieving in themselves the penalty of their error which was due.." Homosexualtiy is an abomination to God. An abomination means "A cause of abhorrence or disgust." God is disgusted with any act of homosexuality. So, now. Back to your question of the bibical case against homosexuality becomming less compelling.... IT DOESN'T. If you were to say that it does, you would be calling the Word of GOD a lie. And surely, I dont think you would be doing that. Just think about that.

By the way, I'm only 14, and I already know this type of knowledge about My God, who is the true and living God by the way. Now, if you have any further questions, feel free to post them on here. Im sure someone with greater knowledge could answer your questions as well.

GOD bless you, and have a joyous day in the Lord. And I hope this answered your questions fully. If not, then I would advise you to pray to God about it, ask him for yourself.

2006-11-08 08:08:48 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Leviticus 18:22
“Do not practice homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman. It is a detestable sin.

Leviticus 20:13
“If a man practices homosexuality, having sex with another man as with a woman, both men have committed a detestable act.

So God says this is your rules. Your argument is God did not make the rules some smart Jewish leaders did. I guess that's your dilemma you doubt that the Bible is God's word.

I note that other ethnicity's also find homosexuality highly objectionable not just the Jews. And most states and other countries still have buggery laws.
It is true many passages encourage the people to multiply

2006-11-08 08:45:51 · answer #3 · answered by Zed 2 · 1 1

As a Bisexual Christian i'm accepting that homosexuality, and any ingredient else that are deviations from PERFECTION are evidences of the sin nature all of us carry. that is even information of the sin nature to p.c.. one sin over all the others, and carry forth a Gospel except for some sorts of sinners from trustinhg in God for salvation. anybody with the flexibility to go back to Christ is able to being saved, gay or not. the individuals preaching adverse to homosexuals being waiting to be saved are antichrist by definition. The definition for antichrist that i'm am utilizing the following is any message adverse to the single Christ preached pertaining to to salvation. this potential there are a good purchase of Christians preahcing an antichrist message.

2016-11-28 22:29:29 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Saul was on a path going somewhere when Jesus appeared to him. Saul converted to Christianity and was named Paul

Gen. 1 & 2 - we see from the beginning that the complimentarity of the sexes reflects God's inner unity and His creative power and Fatherhood. God created man and woman to become one flesh which is consummated in the act of marital love.

Gen. 2:18 – throughout the creation story, God says “it is good” seven times. But when God pointed out that man was alone, God says “it is not good.” God then created woman. Man and woman therefore belong together by God’s design, according to His natural and supernatural law.

Gen. 2:24 – God created man and woman so that they could share communion. This communion is consummated in the marital act (which must be between a man and a woman). This communion is also a reflection of the eternal communion of the Blessed Trinity, who created man in His own image and likeness.

2006-11-08 08:20:57 · answer #5 · answered by Gods child 6 · 1 1

Paul was a zealot for sure. And in my mind the jury is still out on whether or not God finds it sinful. Since he is the only judge of true consequence in the matter, I'll suspend any moral or ethical judgements of my own uhtil God gives me the facts ' face to face.'

2006-11-08 08:11:09 · answer #6 · answered by WHITE TRASH ARMENIAN 4 · 2 1

Well put.
Misguided.
The _entire_ purpose of s ex is to increase numbers of whatever species is in question, just as you said.

It is not possible for creatures of the same gender to procreate, which defeats the purpose.

God, in His numerous commands to "multiply and be fruitful", has said to us through His various prophets that homosexuality is wrong.

2006-11-08 08:06:48 · answer #7 · answered by credo quia est absurdum 7 · 1 1

It makes sense that it's something like that. None of the stuff against homosexuality (except for Sodom and Gomorrah) can be construed as anything other than peoples' opinion. Of course, everyone has their own interpretation of a book, too.

2006-11-08 08:01:10 · answer #8 · answered by GreenEyedLilo 7 · 1 3

im sorry but didnt you just say that the bible has anti-homosexuality statements in it....thats all u need stop trying to find ways around it and god wouldnt have allowed anything to be considered holy scriptures if it wasnt

2006-11-08 08:04:10 · answer #9 · answered by sophia's mommy 2 · 2 2

On whose authority do you say these writings are not divinely inspired? The Church, with the successors to the seat of Peter, has the guarantee of the Holy Spirit in matters of faith and morals. Can you say the same?

Peace,

MoP

2006-11-08 08:02:33 · answer #10 · answered by ManOfPhysics 3 · 3 3

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