It is said that the text in the bible is the exact words of god. Is that implying that god stood over the shoulders all all the people who wrote the bible and told them word for word, crystal clear, what to write for hundreds of pages. it seem way to strange, dont you think?
2006-11-07 20:35:50 · 15 answers · asked by taylor 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Yeah with no mention of the fact
2006-11-07 20:38:41 · answer #1 · answered by Powerpuffgeezer 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
.The bible has been translated several times, from several different languages. I think originally it was mostly ancient Greek. Some of it would have been Aramaic or Latin. Of the Gospels, only St Mark was original, the other three (I believe) were based on it. That's why they say basically the same things but with some variation to suit those to whom it was being preached. Then, a group of men got together with a lot of texts and writings, and decided which parts should be included in the bible, and which should not. The excluded parts are known as The Apocrypha.
They should have perhaps included a waiver clause such as "The writers cannot be responsible for any errors or omissions".
The Bible is best viewed and accepted (in my opinion) as a "whole document", rather than examining and dissecting each passage individually.
Some may claim it is the literal word of God, but a lot of ordinary men have decided its content.
2006-11-08 04:55:16 · answer #2 · answered by Labsci 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Consider this: The Bible, as it exists in the 21st century, has been mass produced by hundreds of publishers across the globe; it has been translated into numerous different versions and languages across the globe; it has been translated and transliterated from old, incomplete, parchments thousands of years old.
Scholars will admit that the 21st century Bible is not complete because we do not have complete parchments; nor do we know how specific words were conceptualized 2,000 years ago, to say nothing of 10,000 years ago.
For instances, the english word "love" is used as a translation for different forms of "love" from the original Greek, Hebrew and Aramaic. Even from the Greek translations, the english word "love" is used to describe four forms of Greek concepts of love: eros, philia, agape and storge. English has much difficulty translating four forms of love as it conceives of only one form.
I, personally, do not believe the Bible to be "The Word of God" on account of all these human and mechanical means of translation and reproduction. I also do not accept the Bible as "The Word of God" because it is never understood the same way by different people from different, and opposing, subcultures. In short: The Bible is NOT universally applicable.
2006-11-08 04:55:59 · answer #3 · answered by Eric 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I disagree with you saying that 'word for word'. If God would have used His own language, the finite mind would'nt understand. The Bible is an inspired word written by different authors divinely appointed in different generations. God bless u
2006-11-08 04:56:55 · answer #4 · answered by emem 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Bible is verbally inspired by God and therefore infallible. If the Creator God is self-existent always, then would it be difficult for Him to take control of the human minds to put down only what He intended to be revealed to humans? Not at all. It was not written down overnight... Various people of God moved by the Spirit of God wrote them down at different historical times, yet ultimately having one author -- God Himself !! Since we live in a postmodern culture that rejects any absolute authority (divine or human), it would appear to be very strange to think that God revealed His word to be the "absolute standard" by which to measure all our beliefs and actions!!
2006-11-08 05:09:18 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
who ever said that every single word of the bible is the exact word of G-d is a complete ignoramus about biblical history.
If you compare different biblical texts from the last 2,000 years everything from the Dead Sea Scrolls to the Masoritic Texts and the Septuagint not to mention different NT scrolls you will find thousands of differences between them.
2006-11-08 04:39:29 · answer #6 · answered by Gamla Joe 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Be serious. If someone offered you your first-ever taste of chocolate and you decided to write home about it, would you have somebody else dictate it to you as to how it tastes like?? Come on...
The prophets, seers and visionaries had VISIONS of certain prophecies that were being shared with them. And they each wrote--in their own words--what they witnessed according to the very limited language and/or words that they could muster and best describe such imageries with .. Get it??
Of course, they were divinely inspired to begin with anyhow, don't get me wrong. The proof of the pudding is that such prophecies DID in fact occur many generations later... and there are still more to come, according to the Book of Revelations.
Peace be with you.
2006-11-08 04:47:46 · answer #7 · answered by Arf Bee 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No it doesn't.It was given to certain ones through the Spirit.
The word for word thing I disagree with,how could something so old be not changed,but it is to be rightly divided and that is done by the same Spirit that God used to give the ones that wrote it.That is the HOLY SPIRIT.
2006-11-08 04:41:26 · answer #8 · answered by jackiedj8952 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well if it was given to "certain ones" through the spirit, then all of those "certain ones" must not have all been listening very intently or we wouldn't have the discrepancies across the various versions that have been found in text and on scrolls.
2006-11-08 04:47:50 · answer #9 · answered by rndyh77 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its actually said that the bible is 'spirit led'. This means that the words are the absolute truth that have been approved divinely.
2006-11-08 04:46:38 · answer #10 · answered by steve s 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes it does mean something like that, there were many people who God chose to write the word of God. people just like you
May God bless you
and remember that Jesus loves you
2006-11-08 04:45:36 · answer #11 · answered by jan d 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋