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everything as "bc" before Christ and "ad" after death of Christ and why did this ever begin if His death and resurection did not occur,were that many people wrong?When He raised Lazuras from the dead while many people watched and Lazuras was stinking from decoposition,how can this be explained?Dont you think it is harder with the evidence,to prove this did not happen than it did ? I think its very important that there were credible witinesses present and i want to live with Him do you?

2006-11-07 08:44:15 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

9 answers

Actually that is not what the actual term meant...
AD was Anno Domini (In the Year of our lord)
While BC did mean Before Christ the more common usage now is BCE(Before Current Era)

2006-11-07 08:54:38 · answer #1 · answered by IndyT- For Da Ben Dan 6 · 0 0

BCE" redirects here. For other uses of the abbreviation, see BCE (disambiguation).
The Common Era (CE), sometimes known as the Current Era or as the Christian Era, is the period of measured time beginning with the year 1 on the Gregorian calendar. The notations CE and BCE (Before the Common Era or Before the Christian Era) are alternative notations for AD (anno Domini, Latin for "in the year of the Lord") and BC (Before Christ), respectively. The CE/BCE system of notation is chronologically equivalent to dates in the AD/BC system, i.e. no change in numbering is used, and neither includes a year zero. The abbreviations may also be written C.E. and B.C.E.

2006-11-07 08:51:53 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

once you study heavily, Jesus did no longer ever say the crucifixion replaced into his meant potential of redeeming mankind. The Apostles have been at a loss as to a thank you to act after the crucifixion, which had in no way been on the tables. they had in no way been arranged for it and Jesus wasn't arranged for it the two, yet he'd completed his artwork as a stable rabbi, and unfold a great number of stable ideas, some taken from sects, others from Greek philosophy, others from issues he'd learnt in Alexandria and perchance interior the ineffective Sea communities. After Jesus it wasn't lots "how can we comprehend what Jesus taught" as "how can we make the disappearance of this prophet sensible and tie all of it up right into a logical, new faith". Arguments approximately what Jesus's visual charm and disappearance have been meant to point went on for hundreds of years. In some years' time we are going to have the booklet of the newly got here across Judas' Gospel. which will placed some cats between the pigeons. enable's desire we get the unadulterated version and not Benedict sixteen's version.

2016-10-21 10:48:08 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

For the record,

BCE and CE were brought about as terms to use instead of BC and AD since those terms had religious connotations. But rather than get rid of the BC & AD system completely, since it is being used pretty much worldwide now, they just changed the name a little.

2006-11-07 09:15:43 · answer #4 · answered by Rainy Days and Mondays 3 · 0 0

We date everything BCE and CE, which stand for Before the Common Era and Common Era.
Not sure what cricified is, nor resurection, nor decoposition.
Personally I do not want to live with Jesus.

2006-11-07 08:51:10 · answer #5 · answered by WendyD1999 5 · 1 0

Economics. That's an awful lot of text books we'd have to reprint if we started counting from some other date.

By the way, AD stands for Anno Domino, not After Death.

2006-11-07 08:49:35 · answer #6 · answered by lcraesharbor 7 · 0 0

1) It is a convention, not everybody does it
2) The myth has some legs to it, I'll agree
3) The only "evidence" for this is the NT, which even you must admit is the best hagiography ever written
4) There is no evidence (see answer 3)
5) There is no evidence(see answer 3) and no, I don't.

2006-11-07 08:51:57 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You mean that Jesus died, then he rose up a few days later? Are you saying that Jesus was a zombie?

2006-11-07 08:50:59 · answer #8 · answered by Chris R 2 · 1 0

Right. And my mom had a Ceasarean section, so she must be Roman, true?
Weird logic, dude.

2006-11-07 09:01:22 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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