The Bible endorses homosexual behaviour and we shall provide one such example which is exemplified in the story of the relationship between Daniel and the prince of the eunuchs.
The verse is:
“Vayiten ha-Elohim et-Daniyel leKHesed u’leraKHamim lifnei sar hasarisim” (Daniel 1:9)
[i.e., “Now God had brought Daniel into favor and tender love with the prince of the eunuchs” (KJV).]
The Hebrew words, which describe the relationship between Daniel and the prince of the Eunuchs, are “KHesed” and “RaHamim”.
The first of these indeed means “goodness, kindness, faithfulness”. The word “RaHamim”, however, derives from the Semitic root R-H-M, which refers to a womb.1 The KJV’s rendering of “RaHamim” as “tender love” would therefore entail and indespensible element of physical love, or love which is manifested through physical contact.
Now, look at our two characters: The prince of the eunuchs is of course an eunuch. Daniel, in the opinion of the Jewish commentators, was also an eunuch.2 Hence an affair between them involving physical love would correctly be termed as a homosexual affair (i.e., between an eunuch and another eunuch).
Of course there is no “twisting” done to the sense or material of the verse, which are presented as they stand. Some may object that it is quite impossible for an eunuch to have any sexual contact. I would like to highlight this argument by pointing out an even more elementary matter: the deprivation of the testes or external genitals in a man or boy does not result in the change of sex of the same to a woman or girl. Hence the “tender love” between Daniel and the prince of the eunuchs would nonetheless remain a homosexual affair.
Secondly, the terms “eunuch” and “castration” are invariably spoken of male subjects; the correct corresponding term for females is “spaying”.
Thirdly, why should one entertain the possibility that the eunuch (as in Daniel’s “prince of the eunuchs”), would have to be the active sexual partner, when the common sense assigns to him the passive role?
Fourthly, it is also abundantly clear that this is not the only homosexual affair from the Bible. It is also believed that Jonathon and David too (according to the Biblical account) were more than just the “closest of friends”; they were passionate homosexual lovers.3
Hence from this brief exposition, it is inconceivable that the “word of God” would condone such a horrible and unnatural sexual act, as the Bible obviously does.
2006-11-07
02:04:48
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20 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
OK so we now are enlightened by the fact that Bible approves homosexuality...so whats next ? Anyway gay marriages are getting approved and legalized all over Europe and USA, so whats new ?
2006-11-07 02:11:04
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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In Daniel 1:9, you completely miss the context. It's referring to the fact that the prince was meant to take care of Daniel, and other young men, and that Daniel wasn't eating any of the food they provided for him. The prince was concerned for his health and well-being, bc he favored and loved Daniel. It wasn't sexual at all, it's more comparable to a father's love for his son. He was concerned bc Daniel wasn't eating.
Reading the verses beforehand really helps your understanding, you should try it.
With reference to Jonathan and David, they weren't homosexual lovers, they were very good friends, they did greet each other with kisses, but that wasn't uncommon for the time, it was a cultural greeting.
Your lack of understanding of the Bible is amazing, do a little more research next time. It upsets me when ppl demonstrate their ignorance when they speak against the Bible.
2006-11-07 02:18:28
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answer #2
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answered by STEPHEN J 4
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So how is it that he would be homosexual if in the verse preceding that he claims that he is not going to pollute himself.
I am sorry but God is a God of truth - how is it that he should say do not be lovers of men and then give over one of the most loyal of subjects into such a relationship - find your logic for homosexual tendencies else where.
2006-11-07 02:13:50
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answer #3
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answered by baperone 2
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Look at God with your heart. The words of man can and are corrupt. Know that God is perfect and loving and go from there. What do you think a perfect loving father figure like God would say about this. It should be obvious. Peace.
2006-11-07 02:14:04
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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earlier 1946 they have been Sodomites, and Lesbians, additionally stated as Amazons, in derogatory slang Dikes, and the masculine counterpart for that insult grew to become into *** or *****, so there have been descriptions, yet none of them have been useful, apart from what grew to become into implied in some cases with "previous Bachelor" or "Spinster"/"previous Maid", with people finding out directly to no longer marry the choice intercourse, as grew to become into to no longer their style, they could fairly stay single(in some cases implied no longer consistently a gay nature). Homosexuality is as previous as devil, as he orchestrated it to offend God good from the beginning up alongside with Rape, Bestiality, Sacrificing Newborns, Orgies(Gamorrites, or with courtesy defined Hedonists), Peor god worship(Oral intercourse), and Temple prostitution to assuage the "gods", and their followers, Druidism(which is composed of all witchery), none of those issues are new decrease than the sunlight, Homosexuality is likewise Biblically stated as "the giving and taking of many marriages as in Noah's day" which meant no person had any regard for the classic marriage of a guy and lady. The Bible additionally speaks of girls folk shouldn't gown up and act like men, it particularly is yet otherwise of conversing approximately Lesbians pursuing women folk as "synthetic men", no longer a strict gown code like some denominations have confidence. Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 Romans one million:26 1st Corinthians 6:9-11 1st Kings 14:24 15:12 2d Kings 23:7 Deuteronomy 23:17-18 Revelation 22:15(implied) and Genesis 19:4-5 Jude 7 Judges 19:22(Gilbeah) are some passages that handle Homosexuality/Prostitution the two known "fake god worship" like I reported with the aid of fact the very beginning up, no longer long after Cain, and on a similar time as we are translating sin "looking upon a father's nakedness" is incestuous kinfolk with the mother(father's nakedness loosely translated returned to Hebrew), there's a fabulous style of words that prefer translation to their Hebrew/Greek information to be right understood. i'm hoping this does not crush you donkey, Peace to you and yours.
2016-10-03 09:21:08
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answer #5
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answered by ? 4
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none of the events you discuss give any reference to sexual relations. Homosexual acts are declared sinful in both new and old test. Read about Sodom and Gomorrah..
2006-11-07 02:13:30
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answer #6
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answered by morris 5
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If you want to have a homosexual life style that's your choice. But do you really need endorsement from the Bible or anyone else to feel comfortable?
2006-11-07 02:13:20
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answer #7
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answered by charmaine f 5
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So Whats your question??? Obviously you've already made up your mind on what you think the Bible is condoning... So you really don't need us to say anything do you?
2006-11-07 02:08:55
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answer #8
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answered by crystal 2
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I agree. Now find the passage that condemns homosexuality and you will have our beloved bible full of contradictions.
2006-11-07 02:09:30
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answer #9
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answered by Angel Baby 5
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The bible is open to interpretation from just about every angle. One of many reasons I believe it to be flawed.
2006-11-07 02:13:27
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answer #10
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answered by PaganPoetess 5
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