The defendant's insursance company would not provide a rental car because the defendant said that he was not at fault. While the case was under investigation, the victim was without a car. Should the victim be compensated for the days he was without his car?
2006-11-06 11:03:00 · 7 answers · asked by GEE 1 in Cars & Transportation ➔ Insurance & Registration
Sadly no.
I know that I pay extra on my insurance for a rental car option to cover the cost of a rental car in case mine has to go in the shop in case of accident or certain kinds of malfunctions. If I were in an accident, it would be my own insurance that gave me this kind of coverage even if I wasn't at fault (and the person at fault's insurance should pay).
Lilfe stinks sometimes.
2006-11-06 11:13:06 · answer #1 · answered by professor mom 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Do you have collision coverage and rental coverage on your own policy? If you do, use it. One thing you have to remember is that the defendant's insurance company is not YOUR insurance company. They are not in a rush to help you. They do not compensate you for days without a car. However, YOUR insurance company should. I believe the average amount if $12.00 a day and you must prove it with receipts from the bus or taxi. I know $12.00 a day seems like nothing but what can you do. If you have coverage, use it.
2006-11-07 01:19:29 · answer #2 · answered by Rica 82 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Did you have her sign a launch of criminal duty as quickly as you had her motor vehicle fastened? If no longer don't be stunned that she retains coming when you for diminished value, lost wages, psychological soreness and aggravation, and then there is often that sore back or neck that did no longer appear symptomatically good away! generally, except you're particularly sturdy with the regulations on criminal duty on your state, dealing with your coverage is the greater suitable direction because of the fact they understand a thank you to get the situation settled for the least pay out. ingenious replaced into very ingenious with their MRVs (cellular reaction autos). What they do is appear on the scene of the fender bender, supply a settlement for broken this is in all probability somewhat over what it relatively is going to value to get the wear and tear fastened and that they have got the "sufferer" sign a launch upon the negotiating of the examine that they hand them on the spot. observe they have THE sufferer sign A launch! Now, in case you probably did have her sign a launch, shop it attainable and remind her that she signed which you had met your duty interior the twist of destiny and you're under no extra criminal duty to make any extra restitution.
2016-10-15 11:14:22 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why doesn't accident 'victim' have rental insurance? Why would other insurance company be required to pay for something the 'victim' doesn't already have?(i.e; rental coverage). What would the 'victim' do if he/she hit a tree and didn't have a car to drive?
2006-11-06 11:13:01 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The general rule is that the victim is only compensated IF (and ONLY IF) he/she is found to be WITHOUT fault AND the other party involved is found to be AT FAULT. If there is a "No Fault" determination, each party is responsible for their own damages. Also, the "victim" can be reimbursed when judgement is passed as to who is at fault.
2006-11-06 11:11:21 · answer #5 · answered by cyanne2ak 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not if fault isn't immediately clear. And if you don't rent a vehicle, and the other person is found at fault, they still may deny pointing out that if you really needed a vehicle that badly you would have rented one anyway, and didn't.
2006-11-06 12:18:00 · answer #6 · answered by oklatom 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If not a car then at least travelling expenses.
That is usualy £10 a day in the UK
2006-11-06 11:12:53 · answer #7 · answered by Lilolme 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋