If Jesus said that he did not come to abolished the Law?

Question

Then why did christians abolish most of it anyway?

Answer 1

Because most of those old laws are really just an embarassment to the religion, so they are desperate to find a way to rationalize their abolishment. Where in the bible does it say that the 10 commandments are still ok, but not stoning for adultery or putting women in tents during their periods?

The entire religion is based on 2 things: Picking and choosing which "holy books" were included in the final version of the bible, and then picking and choosing which verses in those books de-emphasised the Jewish tradition and emphasised what they wanted their new religion to say.

Answer 2

Christians do not abolish the Laws of Moses. Laws of the circular world may be ,opposed to by Christians but not the Laws of Moses which Jesus Christ said he had not come to abolish.

Answer 3

Jesus came to show us how to live the Law..the 10 Commandments. ( so called "Christians" who don''t live by these laws, are really not following Christ.)
The law that Jesus came to abolish, was all those 600 or more laws in the Old Testament. Once Christ came, there was no need for any sacrfices or obedience to laws of that kind. The only law that was needed, was a natural law of love that Christ came to show. If we loved Christ and wanted to walk the way He did, we follow the commandments, not because we have to, but because we want to.
Hope this helps.

Answer 4

I have never heard of anything like that but Jesus is Lord, He is the One to listen to. Human beings are just human beings, they always abolish what they don't agree with, so go with what Jesus said and don't stress about what humans are doing, they will get their punishment for what they are doing.

Answer 5

Depends on your perspective. If you look at it from a Jewish perspective then it doesnt really matter because most xtians are gentiles and the majority of the Law doesnt apply to them. The Torah (Law) is a covenant between Israel and God not gentiles and God. As a matter of fact, if you read Jeremiah, even the New Covenant is between Israel and God (again no gentiles). Jesus didnt abolish that covenant but James decided in Acts that gentiles only needed to keep certain basic principles. He only mentions 4 things for them to observe and they are part of the 7 Laws of Noah which Jews til this day believe apply to gentiles.

I'm not Jewish but lets be honest here. In Jesus' own words he did not come for gentiles. He said "I was sent only to the lost sheep of the House of Israel".

Answer 6

1. Did Jesus ever break God's law? Heb. 4:15. Did his parents obey the law regarding circumcision? Luke 2:21. Did they observe the rules about purification after childbirth? Verses 22-27. Did they keep the annual festivals? Verse 42. Did Jesus continue in this pattern of doing the Father's will? Verse 49.

2. Did Jesus teach people to obey everything God had commanded? Matt. 5:20, 48; 7:21. Did he encourage people to obey the ritual laws? Matt. 5:23-24; 8:4. Did he come to destroy the law? Matt. 5:17.

Comment: The purpose of Jesus' life and work was to fulfill both the Law (the books of Moses) and the Prophets (other Old Testament books). He did not destroy the Old Testament. But that doesn't mean that Christians have to keep circumcision and all the other old laws. Jesus' ministry caused many changes in the law -- changes so dramatic that laws were "set aside" or declared "obsolete" (Heb. 7:18; 8:13). Some laws remained the same, some were changed, and others were "abolished" (Eph. 2:15).

When Jesus said, "I have not come to abolish the Law or the Prophets," he did not mean that each specific law would stay exactly the same. He meant that the purpose and message of the Law and the Prophets remain exactly the same. The Law and the Prophets pointed to him and were intended from the beginning to be fulfilled by him.

Some of the specific laws of the old covenant are still valid, but many of them were set aside when Jesus came and fulfilled them by his life, death and resurrection. Matthew 5:17 is not a "proof" of any particular law, because this verse does not tell us which specific laws are still valid or which have been changed or set aside.

Old covenant laws (such as the laws of sacrifice) have been set aside precisely because Jesus has fulfilled them. He did not come for the purpose of destroying those laws, but for fulfilling their meaning. However, by fulfilling their meaning, he made it unnecessary for Christians to keep those laws. They are unnecessary because they have served their purpose by pointing to Jesus. He is the reality to which they could only point. Now that he has come, they are no longer legally binding.

Yet because they point to Jesus Christ and show how God interacted with a group of people at one time and place, the old covenant laws continue to give us insights into God's will. Even the laws of sacrifice are "useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness" (2 Tim. 3:16).

Jesus also fulfilled various laws about ritual cleanliness. That did not mean that he never became unclean, because anyone with normal bodily functions would occasionally become unclean (Deut. 23:10). Jesus also touched dead people, lepers and other causes of uncleanness. It was not a sin to be unclean. However, Jesus fulfilled the purpose of the purity laws: He was morally and spiritually pure. He had internal holiness, set apart to do the work of God.

Jesus fulfilled the purpose of God's laws. He did not destroy the fact that people should obey God, even though his crucifixion brought a change in some of the details of how they obey God.

3. Did Jesus criticize the law of Moses as not being strict enough? Matt. 19:7-9. Did he teach that a stricter standard of righteousness was necessary? Matt. 5:20-22, 27-28.

4. The Pharisees were very strict about the small details of the law. What did Jesus say about their carefulness? Matt. 23:5, 23-28. Are some parts of the law more important than others? Matt. 9:13; 12:7.

5. Did Jesus teach the same things Moses did, or was there also a contrast between these two? Matt. 11:13; John 1:17; 2 Cor. 3:15-16. When the disciples saw Jesus with Moses and Elijah, who were they told to listen to? Matt. 17:1-5; Acts 3:22.

Comment: Jesus did not emphasize the same things Moses did. Moses wrote many chapters about the tabernacle and the "place" in which God put his name. Jesus said that place did not matter (John 4:20-24). Moses wrote many chapters about ritual uncleanness; Jesus was much less concerned about it. Instead, Jesus gave much more emphasis to the way people should treat each other.

The law of Moses required many animal sacrifices, but because of the sacrificial death of Jesus, the sacrifices are no longer required. Moses wrote that sins could be atoned for through the performance of rituals, but this was a temporary and external atonement; Jesus simply forgave people as a permanent gift and a cleansed conscience. Jesus often told people to obey God, but Moses is not the standard by which obedience is now measured.

6. Who is the final authority for Christians? Matt. 7:21-29; 10:32-33, 39; 19:29; 28:18-20; John 3:25-26; 6:29; 14:21-23; 17:2-3.

Comment: Jesus, as the Son of God, has more authority than Moses had (Heb. 3:1-6). Jesus is the standard by which Moses is judged. Jesus could quote the law of Moses when it supported his point, and he could also criticize the law of Moses as not being strict enough. In some cases the law of Moses requires too much, and in other cases it does not require enough.

Jesus said: Moses said one thing, but I say another (Matt. 5:21-45). Jesus presented himself as the greater authority, the perfect authority, the basis on which people will be judged. Our lives should conform to the standard Jesus set, not the imperfect standard Moses wrote.

In Christianity, some of the laws of Moses are still valid, and others are not (for an example of each, the law about murder and the law about tassels). How do we know which is valid and which is obsolete? The New Testament is the authority by which the old covenant is to be understood.

Although the Old Testament is inspired Scripture and part of the Word of God, its purpose was to point to the coming and work of Jesus Christ. Therefore, when it comes to understanding what is required for Christian behavior, the Old Testament must be interpreted in light of what the New Testament says -- and the New Testament says that the old covenant is obsolete (Heb. 8:13).

Answer 7

a) He did abolish some of the laws
(no work on Sabbath; kosher laws; etc.)
b) He said that the laws would not change until the world was reborn, that is, when he died
c) In conclusion, his death abolished the laws of old, the laws of new are now on the throne of power

Answer 8

Jesus came to fullfill the Law which he did.

The christian obligation to the Mosiac Law ended at Pentacost 33
Heb 7:12 For when there is a change in the priesthood, there is necessarily a change in the law as well.

Christians now live under the Law of Christ which was told by Jesus to his disciples and recorded for us.

Answer 9

the christians either didnt notice it ( out of ignorance ) or just close thier eyes, that what they are following is really Paul's law.
It is Saul Paulus who really abolish the law in the Old Testament.

Answer 10

I'm guessing you didn't go to the link I gave you in your last question. Please go there. This is a MUCH more complex issue than you know.

Peace.