2006-11-05 09:12:55 · 9 answers · asked by hawaiian_shorts91 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
For most purposes, there would be no need to pluralise it. However, if you were writing a piece of Latin prose or preparing an oration in that language and were addressing a number of people, you could say "Notate bene", which would mean "you (plural) note well/pay heed".
2006-11-05 10:44:20 · answer #1 · answered by Doethineb 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
'Nota bene' as an expression in English has no plural. As two other posters have said, though, if you're using it in an original Latin-language context rather than English, the plural is indeed 'notate bene' for the reasons explained by the first reply you received.
Cheers, Jon (I knew my classics degree would come in handy one day!)
2006-11-05 11:20:16 · answer #2 · answered by lineartechnics 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
It is a verbal expression, verb in the imperative singular + adverb, the plural would be "notate bene"
Edit:
For those that don't know, in Latin and most modern European languages there are 2 forms of the imperatve, one if you adress 1 person, and one for more than one person, which is called a plural
2006-11-05 09:16:17 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
Since "nota bene" translates as "note well", and is a command or instruction to pay particular attention to what follows, there is no plural.
Similarly, for example, you couldn't have a plural for "drive slowly" or "read quietly".
You can only have a plural when it is possible for the word or phrase to refer to more than one of something.
If you wanted to use "nota bene" to refer to more than one thing you would have to change the phrase and add in more words - the English equivalent could be, in that case, "note these well" where the word "these" has been added to indicate there is more than one thing to which the reader should pay attention - this might be written in Latin as "haec nota bene" ("these note well") though I am not certain of the word order for Latin - it's years since I studied it.
2006-11-05 10:42:44 · answer #4 · answered by Stephen C 3 · 0⤊ 3⤋
Recalling grade 9 latin MANY years ago, I want to say "Tabulae Rasa". But two online dictionary sources (and I can't speak for their credibility) are suggesting that the adjective also becomes plural. ie. "Tabulae rasae".
2016-05-22 01:57:40 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nota pairabene
2006-11-05 09:23:31 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
It does not bear plural at all.
2006-11-05 10:02:48 · answer #7 · answered by sunflower 7 · 1⤊ 3⤋
It doesn't have a plural.
2006-11-05 09:17:54 · answer #8 · answered by Mr Glenn 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
it has no plural
2006-11-05 09:16:57 · answer #9 · answered by ♫Pavic♫ 7 · 0⤊ 3⤋