Friend, I am glad there is someone on here that see the way I see, When I first was saved in May 1970, I was a trinity, But by Aug. 1970 God already revealed the God head to me, & on Aug.2,1970 I was Baptized in the Name of the Lord Jesus Christ. I also had answered this question by someone else earlier this Morning, It is very True that Acts 2:38 fulfills Matt.28:19.There is no contridiction there, Peter Had the revelation of Who that Redemptive name was. & all throught out the new testamnet all Were Baptized in the Name of the Lord Jesus Christ. There is No TITLES mention in water baptism that anyone ever use those titles. Peter was given the KEYS(REVELATION) to the Kingdom of Heaven & Peter knew that If we follow the Aposltes Doctrine, Then The Kingdom of Heaven will be in us. Jesus even said I am come in my Father name, & also the bible says whatsoever ye do in WORD or DEED do it ALL in the Name Of Jesus Christ, Baptism is a DEED.
2006-11-05 00:42:20
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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>>>So, did Peter disobey Our Lord when at the day of Pentecost he instructed all to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ when Jesus Christ Himself said to baptize in the name(notice singular not three as in three different beings) of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost just 10 days before<<<
No, Peter did not disobey the Lord. He called on everyone to be baptized in Jesus' name -- which by extension meant that they were also being baptized in the name of the Father and the Spirit also. By speaking the name Jesus, it didn't mean that Peter was leaving out "the other two guys."
>>>Could it be that Peter had a revelation of what that Name was?<<<
Possible, but doubtful. I think it would be in Scripture, or in some other important non-Scriptural work, or in the teaching of the Church, if it were the case.
>>>And if so, why are people still being baptized in TITLES and not A name?>>>
See above.
>>>And if it doesn't matter, why does the bible say that there is no other name given under heaven by which we must be saved?>>>
Because there isn't one.
>>>And if the book of Acts is the church in action, why isn't there a record of anyone being baptized in titles or Father, Son, Holy Ghost?>>>
The Book of Acts is not the "be all and end all" of Christian belief and practice -- and nowhere does Acts claim itself to be such.
Indeed, not even the Bible is the sole rule of faith for Christians. It is the most important written source of Christian faith and thought, of course -- but nowhere does the Bible claim itself as the sole rule of Christian faith.
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2006-11-05 00:31:27
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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the baptism that John performed did not negate sin but was a sign or precursor to the Baptism to come,as He knew of the coming of the Messiah, the Lamb of God,Who would take away the sins of the world.
Peter and the Apostles felt no authority to baptise untill given this by Christ, and would have understood that even when they did baptise in the names of Father,Son and Holy Spirit it was the authoritve command of Jesus that enabled this,and by no other name could it be done.
there is no record given by the Apostles about the triple names I believe because they really understood the command and felt it to be a natural and understandable practise.
2006-11-05 00:37:59
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answer #3
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answered by Sentinel 7
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"In the name of..." means, by the authority of....
As the disciples baptized people, it was said that JESUS baptized them -- that is, they baptized by Jesus' authority (John 4:1-3).
And 'baptize' means 'immerse', 'wash' 'put into'. Vine's Complete Expository Dictionary has, "'baptizing them into the Name' would indicate that the 'baptized' person was closely bound to, or became the property of, the one into whose name he was 'baptized'."
Matthew 28:19 -- Go ye therefore, and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them into the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit
Baptize "them into the name of the Father..."
As Jesus prayed, "Holy Father, keep through Your name those whom You have given Me..." (John 17:11), so, the instruction is to immerse converts into the property of God -- they become marked as, and fully, one of God's people, even his special treasure.
Baptize "[them into] the son..."
The body of Christ, Jesus, the firstborn son of God, is the Church. This instructs to put a convert fully into the true Church of God.
Baptize "[them into] the holy spirit"
The holy spirit is the power and mind of God (Php 2:5, 2Ti 1:7, 1Co 2:16, Php 1:27). A convert must have the mind of God to have Godly faith and motivation to overcome sin; they must be immersed into the the spirit of God.
So, as you can see, this phrase is not changing the name by which one must be baptized, but explaining what one is being baptized into. Jesus is the only way into the Kingdom of God -- the only gate. The baptism of John was ONLY for the remission of sins. The baptism of Jesus is for so much more.
2006-11-05 01:36:22
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answer #4
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answered by BC 6
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We are baptised in the Name, or authority of Christ, the Name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost. Romans 6 talks about the significance of that baptism as a symbol. It represents our co-death, co-burial, and co-resurrection with Christ; our death to our sinful nature and our new life in Christ.
2006-11-05 00:52:04
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answer #5
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answered by Jay Z 6
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A lot of people confuse human nature with Spiritual nature. It would be human nature for three people to disagree with each other. It would be human nature for three people to compete for supreme superiority. Not so with the Father, Son, and the Holy Spirit. They agree so perfectly that they don't feel the need to compete with each other. They share the same position as the "Most High God'. There will always be two witnesses in heaven to judge the world.
2006-11-05 00:35:41
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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wow I wish I could help you out...I am afraid I will give the wrong answer. You should find a preacher and ask him.
2006-11-05 00:35:46
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answer #7
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answered by ? 1
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