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DONT GIVE ME A YES OR NO ANSWER

2006-11-04 17:18:49 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

CAN SOMEONE ANSWER MY QUESTION?

2006-11-04 17:23:47 · update #1

9 answers

An Archeological Discovery of the DEAD SEA SCROLLS proves this could not be the case.

2006-11-04 17:23:33 · answer #1 · answered by Search4truth 4 · 0 0

the Old Testament writings began with the Pentateuch. Assuming Moses was the author of at least some of the books that would date the writings to the 13th Century B.C.

The New Testament writings began around A.D. 40s-50s and continued perhaps to around A.D. 90s. Since many OT prophecies were fulfilled at the time of Christ, it is senseless to think the event occured first, then the written prophecies.

If a prophecy and the event occured BEFORE it was written down, it does not change the fact that a prophecy was given and fulfilled, and there is no motive to fabricate all of it, and it would have been a waste of time anyway because being stoned to death for making a false prophecy is very bad for ones health.

2006-11-05 01:35:03 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You can't write about a prophesy after it happens because then it would be a history. But I see where you are coming from. However......

The books were written down according to the story told. Just like if someone told you they knew a train was going to hit a car at a crossing. Three days later it happens. The next day you write about it. It was still a prophecy because it was talked about first. If no one said anything, then wrote about it, then it was not a prophecy.
Also, some of the prophecies in the Bible have yet to come true.

2006-11-05 01:27:24 · answer #3 · answered by unclewill67 4 · 0 0

The prophecies about Christ, and other things, came hundreds of years before they happened. That would be similar to asking if Christopher Columbus could have written about the attacks on 9-11. These prophecies were delivered from God to the prophets long before they were to be realized.

2006-11-05 01:27:59 · answer #4 · answered by panther 2 · 0 0

I'm unclear about what you are asking, exactly. Are you saying the OT may have been written after the NT?

The OT speaks of prophesies fulfulled in the NT times. And some other things which have not yet come to pass.

2006-11-05 01:38:16 · answer #5 · answered by ? 7 · 0 0

Not possible, being that many of the prophets lived in time periods before the events, they prophesied, took place...

2006-11-05 01:24:02 · answer #6 · answered by Adyghe Ha'Yapheh-Phiyah 6 · 0 0

no. because the jewish people had these prophecies from before when they were fulfilled. Hence the term "prophecy".

2006-11-05 01:28:10 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

All I can say is Jesus quoted Daniel and Isaiah as being true.If He doesn't know ,who does?

2006-11-05 01:26:36 · answer #8 · answered by AngelsFan 6 · 0 0

OF COURSE NOT! HOW DARE YOU ASK SUCH A QUESTION! PRAY TO GOD BEFORE HE SMITES YOU!!!!!!

2006-11-05 01:23:31 · answer #9 · answered by Brandon 2 · 0 1

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