If someone collects the money (Illegally) to help someone (Also Illegally) but, the money is not used for the exact purpose since very long and he, himself spent or not shown any account since it is collected. How the law defines this? Farud, Extortion, Corruption practice or some other way? Thank You.
2006-11-04 09:56:07 · 14 answers · asked by K T 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law Enforcement & Police
Extortion
2006-11-04 09:58:01 · answer #1 · answered by R & B 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Fraud is collecting money from people under false pretenses. Embezzlement is taking legally collected money and using it for personal interests. Extortion is forcing someone to give you something through blackmail or coersion.
The law does not honor contracts amongst thieves, per se. There is no crime between the two parties because the money was illegal to begin with and meant for further illegal purposes. All contracts must be legal to be valid. So in the eyes of the law, it's not business - it's personal
2006-11-04 18:06:35 · answer #2 · answered by jerry 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Your english is bad and makes what you are attempting to say difficult at best.
Collects the money how? What method was used to obtain the money? Be a little more specific. Has any of the money been spent since it was collected?
2006-11-04 18:02:15 · answer #3 · answered by marklemoore 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its got fraud and extortion. If the people who gave you the money in good faith don't know they will not be hurt. Who ever took the money for a good reason and spent it frivolously should feel some guilt if that person has any kind of consciences.
2006-11-04 18:08:35 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You could be charged with many things. Dependent on what crime was done to receive the monies. The money being used for other purposes would be conversion. It would be the same as money laundering.
2006-11-04 17:59:50 · answer #5 · answered by dogloverdi 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Whatever it was used for the law was broken. When the police find out someone will be arrested.
2006-11-04 18:00:14 · answer #6 · answered by winter715 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Theft by fraud the amount determines if it is a Felony .
2006-11-08 23:27:20 · answer #7 · answered by Jack C 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
in the UK it's probably aiding and abbeting to commit a crime....but a good lawyer might get you off.
2006-11-04 18:00:55 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It defines it... some body's going to jail
2006-11-04 17:57:55 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If it's under the table no one cares.
2006-11-04 17:57:32 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋