Starting from (1)Inviscid fluids why do one have to move to (2)Newtonian flows(navia stokes equation) to (3)Non-Newtonian flows to (4)Viscoelastic flows. If it possible can u all send me a website which may be useful for me to read..... Thanks
2006-11-04 08:43:57 · 2 answers · asked by N 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Engineering
It simply goes from simply to describe to more difficult to describe. Inviscid flows eg. can be methematically described with an elegant potential theory, while Navierstokes is already difficult to solve.
Start reading:http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fluid_dynamics
2006-11-06 09:17:10 · answer #1 · answered by Sjors d 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on whether viscous or inertial fluid forces dominate the flow, as indicated by the Reynolds number. See the following refs. and try searching "reynolds number".
2006-11-05 18:39:28 · answer #2 · answered by kirchwey 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋