Because God wanted to spare him the sorrow of seeing his children killed or taken away into captivity.
"The word of the LORD came to me: "You shall not take a wife, nor shall you have sons or daughters in this place. For thus says the LORD concerning the sons and daughters who are born in this place, and concerning the mothers who bore them and the fathers who fathered them in this land: They shall die of deadly diseases. They shall not be lamented, nor shall they be buried. They shall be as dung on the surface of the ground. They shall perish by the sword and by famine, and their dead bodies shall be food for the birds of the air and for the beasts of the earth. Jeremiah 16:1-4
2006-11-04 07:12:01
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answer #1
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answered by Martin S 7
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Jeremiah was commanded not to marry; because this served as a warning of the “deaths from maladies” of the children who would be born during those last days of Jerusalem. (Jer. 16:1-4)
This served to confirm the fact that the fulfillment of Jehovah God's word regarding the destruction of Jerusalem was certain. The prophet would thus be spared fathering children that would experience calamity. Since Jeremiah was fully absorbed in his prophetic work, he heeded God’s command without reservation.
Jeremiah obeyed, counting Jehovah’s service and his word of greater importance than even the matter of marriage. He believed Jehovah. In turn, Jehovah strengthened him to endure with a happy outcome.
However, this in no fashion means Christians cannot marry today. The apostle Peter and other approved servants of God holding positions of authority in the early Christian congregation were married men. (Matthew 8:14; Acts 18:2; 21:8, 9; 1 Corinthians 9:5 - The apostle Paul’s directions to Timothy on the appointment of congregation overseers, or “bishops,” make this clear. He writes: “A bishop must be above reproach, the husband of one wife.” (Italics ours; 1 Timothy 3:2, Revised Standard Version, Catholic Edition.) Notice that there is no suggestion at all that it was unfitting in any way for “a bishop” to be married. Paul simply indicated that “a bishop” should not be a polygamist; if married, he should have only one wife. In fact, the Cyclopedia of Biblical, Theological, and Ecclesiastical Literature, by McClintock and Strong, concludes: “No passage in the N[ew] T[estament] can be interpreted into a prohibition against the marriage of the clergy under the Gospel dispensation.”
2006-11-04 07:46:08
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answer #2
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answered by Jeremy Callahan 4
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God tells Jeremiah not to get married or have children, because he's going to kill everyone (mothers and daughters, fathers and sons). They all "shall die of grievous deaths," and that shall neither "be lamented" nor buried, but "shall be as dung upon the face of the earth." For he has removed peace, "lovingkindness," and mercy from the people.
2006-11-04 07:20:39
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Just my idea, concider the following: The unfaithfulness of the church to Christ in permitting her confidence and affection to be turned from him, and allowing the love of worldly things to occupy the soul, is likened to the violation of the marriage vow. The sin of Israel in departing from the Lord is presented under this figure; and the wonderful love of God which they thus despised is touchingly portrayed. “I sware unto thee, and entered into a covenant with thee, saith the Lord God, and thou becamest mine.” “And thou wast exceeding beautiful, and thou didst prosper into a kingdom. And thy renown went forth among the heathen for thy beauty; for it was perfect through my comeliness, which I had put upon thee. . . . But thou didst trust in thine own beauty, and playedst the harlot because of thy renown.” “As a wife treacherously departeth from her husband, so have ye dealt treacherously
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with me, O house of Israel, saith the Lord;” “as a wife that committeth adultery, which taketh strangers instead of her husband.” [Ezekiel 16:8, 13-15, 32; Jeremiah 3:20.] {GC88 381.2}
In the New Testament, language very similar is addressed to professed Christians who seek the friendship of the world above the favor of God. Says the apostle James: “Ye adulterers and adulteresses, know ye not that the friendship of the world is enmity with God? whosoever therefore will be a friend of the world is the enemy of God.” {GC88 382.1}
Free bible lessons www.itiswritten.com bible questions www.bibleinfo.com God bless
2006-11-04 07:16:40
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answer #4
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answered by wgr88 6
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Jeremiah was foreordained by Jehvoah God prior to his birth that he was to serve as a prophet.
2006-11-04 11:34:37
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answer #5
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answered by lillie 6
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To spare the lives of his love ones.
2016-05-18 09:10:42
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answer #6
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answered by Fannie 1
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Because his wife and children would die.
2006-11-04 12:23:52
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answer #7
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answered by ysk 4
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so he could focus completely on God for ministry.
2006-11-04 07:11:18
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answer #8
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answered by nameisie90 2
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