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"If a man takes a wife and, after lying with her, dislikes her and slanders her and gives her a bad name, saying, 'I married this woman, but when I approached her, I did not find proof of her virginity,' then the girl's father and mother shall bring proof that she was a virgin to the town elders at the gate. The girl's father will say to the elders, 'I gave my daughter in marriage to this man, but he dislikes her. Now he has slandered her and said I did not find your daughter to be a virgin. But here is the proof of my daughter's virginity.' Then her parents shall display the cloth before the elders of the town, and the elders shall take the man and punish him. They shall fine him a hundred shekels of silver and give them to the girl's father, because this man has given an Israelite virgin a bad name. She shall continue to be his wife; he must not divorce her as long as he lives. If, however, the charge is true and no proof of the girl's virginity...

2006-11-03 13:17:41 · 22 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

...can be found, she shall be brought to the door of her father's house and there the men of the town shall stone her to death. She has done a disgraceful thing in Israel by being promiscuous while still in her father's house. You must purge the evil from among you." (Deuteronomy 22:13-21)

2006-11-03 13:17:58 · update #1

22 answers

I don't know about the bible but have you read the quran properly. Similar verses are present.

Sura al-Baqarah 2:223 Your women are a tilth for you (to cultivate) so go to your tilth as ye will, and send (good deeds) before you for your souls, and fear Allah, and know that ye will (one day) meet Him. Give glad tidings to believers, (O Muhammad)

Sura an-Nisa' 4:34 ...As to those women On whose part ye fear Disloyalty and ill-conduct Admonish them (first), (Next), refuse to share their beds, (And last) beat them (lightly); But if they return to obedience, seek not against them Means (of annoyance): For God is Most High, Great (above you all).

In the translation of the above verse the word 'lightly' was added by the translator Yusufali. The original verse does not contain any such (lightly) word. Yusufali was so embarrassed that he added 'lightly' to make the verse more civilized.

Sura an-Nisa 4:24 And all married women (are forbidden unto you) save those (captives) whom your right hand possess.

You say in modern world there are no such things as the possession of the right hands. Think again. Quran is eternal. The world may change but Quran cannot change.

Is not any woman that opposes any Islamic ruling waging a war against Allah? Are not the Mullahs fighting the enemies of Allah? So, when they defeat the enemy (captured rebel woman) she becomes the possession of the right hands (captives) of them. And Allah has permitted them to have sexual intercourse with these captive women.

Tafsir of this ayat take from Mawdudi’s The Meaning of the Qur’an:
Book 10, page 137, footnote no. 94

“This verse explains why one is permitted to have conjugal relations with one’s slave-girls besides the wedded wives, and there is no restriction on their number. The same thing has also been stated in Surah An-Nisa:3; Al-Mu’minun:6; and Al-Ma’arij:30. In all these verses the slave-girls have been mentioned as a separate class from the wedded wives, and conjugal relations with them have been permitted. Moreover, verse 3 of Surah An-Nisa lays down the number of the wives as four, but neither has Allah fixed the number of the slave-girls in that verse nor made any allusion to their number in the other relevant verses. Here, of course, the Holy Prophet is being addressed and told: ‘It is no more lawful for you to take other women in marriage, or divorce any of the present wives and take another wife in her stead; slave-girls, however, are lawful.’ This shows no restriction has been imposed in respect of slave-girls.

Tafsir of Mawdudi, Book2, page 112, footnote 44:

“That is, ‘Those women, who became prisoners of war, while their husbands are left behind in the War Zone, are not unlawful because their marriage ties have been broken by the fact that they have come into the Islamic Zone. It is lawful to marry such women and make them wives, and it is also lawful for those, in whose possession they are, to have sexual relations with them.

Menstruation is an illness (disease)

Sura al-Baqarah 2:222 They question thee (O Muhammad) concerning menstruation. Say it is an illness, so let women alone at such times and go not in unto them till they are cleansed. (Translation by Pickthall)

the prophet said that majority of women will be in hell.

Narrated Ibn 'Abbas: The Prophet said " I was shown the Hell-fire and that the majority of its dwellers were women who were ungrateful" (Sahih Bukhari 1:28)

2006-11-03 15:01:31 · answer #1 · answered by qwert7388 2 · 1 1

Well I can say a few things about this. For one thing these were arranged marriages. The couple were usually,what we would call engaged for at least a year. I think in Jewish culture they were called married sometime before they "knew" each other[or had sex]. I believe that part of what we would call the wedding night was "attended" so to speak by the parents. The bride was given a white cloth before she went into the "knowing" part to,I guess she put this under her body before sex. During sex,if she was a virgin, she would bleed some and the white cloth would "catch" it. The husband would then present the cloth outside the door of the tent for all to see that he had indeed gotten a virgin. The Old Testament was strict. Jesus had not come yet so every sin had to be covered by animal sacrifice. I hope I have not confused you more.

2006-11-03 13:41:27 · answer #2 · answered by softspot 3 · 0 0

The People of Israel had three types of laws:
1. Moral Law (The 10 Commandments)
2. Civil Law (Laws of Government)
3. Ceremonial Law (Laws for Worship)

This particular passage falls under the civil law though it does speak directly about morality. At that time (sadly, not so much today anymore) viginity was highly respected and for someone--man or woman-- to lose their virginity while not married was disgraceful for not only the individual but the ENTIRE family. For someone to accuse a new bride of not being a virgin would be extremely scandalous, even more scandalous than John Kerry's slur against the US Armed services. People actually believed in honor and they protected their family honor and it was protected by showing proof of her virginity or restored by stoning her.

When Christ defeated Satan on the cross, the temple curtain was torn showing our release from the ceremonial law. Similarily, we have been freed from the Biblical civil law. We are still subject to the moral law (and therefor our local/contemporary civil law "Honor your father and mother...") Our submission to the moral law though is not something that we do to earn our salvation, it is simply our joyful response to God's love. It's like when your mom makes your absolute favorite meal and afterwards you say, "Thanks mom, now let me clean up the dishes for you." You don't clean the dishes first in order to earn the meal.

2006-11-03 13:37:54 · answer #3 · answered by linefan 2 · 0 0

It was a common practice that after the wedding night the sheet or under-blanket with blood on it from the hymen would be brought out in the morning and shown to the crowd that would gather outside in the morning. The cloth would then be given to the Father of the Bride. this would be the proof of her virginity. Sometimes if the guy just didn't like her he would try to pull a fast one but, this would prevent that.

2006-11-03 13:27:48 · answer #4 · answered by Midge 7 · 1 0

From what I can gather, it means that at the time that it was written, if a woman were not a virgin when she wed, she would be murdered, and if her husband falsely accused her of not being a virgin, he would be forced to pay "a hundred shekels of silver" (however much that is) to his wife's father, and be her husband until his death.

I'm confused about the cloth that was mentioned, however. What cloth could possibly provide evidence of a woman's virginity?

2006-11-03 13:32:21 · answer #5 · answered by Lady of the Pink 5 · 0 0

Do you know anything about early Jewish life and customs? If you don't, then you would not understand. The Old Testament is not a modern American text. It is from the ancient Near East. For a young Jewish girl not to be a virgin would be rare as hen's teeth. It would be an abomination worthy of death. The Jewish girls married young. There were rituals that they went through during their courtship and wedding ceremony and their wedding night. It she were not a virgin, it would be obvious. They had it worked out.

2006-11-03 13:31:00 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

I did not take the time and reference it, to see if it is really written that away.

But basicly

if she is a virgin and her new husband goes around town saying she is not, the husband can be sued for slander.
if the parents of the girl wins, the husband pays a award to the parents. if not and the girl was not a virgin, the girl gets stoned to death.

Honor was very important, a girl was to be a virgin at the time of her wedding ( or at least let it be known if she is not before hand)

The parents of the girl are the ones who honor is hurt by any talk of the girl.

This is a hard thing in America to understand , since honor does not mean much to anyone any longer, but at one time, it was something worth killing for.

2006-11-03 13:27:56 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

this is what it says in the King James Version of the Holy Bible...

"IF any man take a wife, and go in unto her. and hate her, And give occasions of speech against her and bring up an evil name upon her and say i took this woman and when I came to her i found her not a maid Then shall the father of the damsel and her mother take and bring forht the tokens of the damsels virginity unto the elders of the city in the gate: and the damsels father shall say unto the elders i gave my daughter unto this man to wife and he hateth her, and lo he hath given occasions of speech against her saying i found not thy daughter a maid and yet these are the tokens of my daughters virginity and they shall spread the cloth before the elders of the city and the elders of that city shall take thta man and chastise him and they shall amerce him in an hundred shekels of silver and give them unto the father of the damsel because he hath brought up an evil name upon a virgin of Israel and she shall be his wife he may not put he raway all his days but if this thing be true and the tokens of virgintiy be not found for the damsel the they shall bring out the damsel to the door of her fathers house and the men of her city shall stone her with stones that she die becuase hse hath wrought folly in israel to play the whore in her fathers house so shalt thou put evil from israel.
Deuteronomy 22:13-22

basically what i think its saying is if she really wasnt a virgin when she married him or slept with him the she shall be stoned...and if she was and he accused her wrongly then he shall be stoned...thats what i think it means....

2006-11-03 13:33:19 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The old testament is largely history. This is telling you what the laws of man were at that time in history. The new testament, where the teachings of Jesus are located, creates the "new law" you could say.

Many countries, Muslim in particular, still use these laws. Even when a woman has been raped.

2006-11-03 13:30:49 · answer #9 · answered by Beth M 4 · 0 1

Plain and simple, a female was not allowed to have sex before marriage. If she did, she broke the law, and was stoned. Before 1960, a female who had sex or got pregnant before marriage was a "bad" girl, and all that changed. Now it is nothing to several partners, have a child or live with someone.

2006-11-03 13:29:59 · answer #10 · answered by Connie H 3 · 0 0

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