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If stealing, lying, even looking at a woman in lust is a sin why Moses, Jesus, Mohammed never condemned slavery. Actually in the Bible it is accepted and regulated. In the Koran you can marry all the slaves you want, What your right hand posseses, even if she is married, Surat el Nisaa. More reasons to believe that religiona are man made.

2006-11-02 14:04:22 · 15 answers · asked by M 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

15 answers

Slavery was meant to be a way of paying off debt. But if the master was to harm a slave the master is punished. And once the debt is payed they go free.
We are slaves now to the credit companies.

Christianity, Judaism see things different than Muslim religion.

2006-11-02 14:11:50 · answer #1 · answered by Sean 7 · 1 0

To define the word religion is relevant. Religion is the expression of
the pure true emotions that we hold dear to offer a share for God, or
angels, or whom we pray to each day. Some part of religion may be
the attendance to choir, or temple or church. The slave is not entitled.
Slavery is actually against the better knowledge of interest in the faith.
Slaves could be exceptionally dangerous persons foreign to education
or skills and unable to learn without mastery shared with them. This new
status of belonging, could have as much freedom as anyone else due to
the owners of religion making the world the incredible place it should be.
That now makes slavery a form of service to the proper adherents.

2006-11-02 14:18:47 · answer #2 · answered by mtvtoni 6 · 1 0

the Bible like the Koran sets minimal standards for Morality of society. That dose not mean that a society cannot or should not go above and beyond the morality set for them in some cases this might be necessary.

Also one must remember these works were not given in a vacuum to abolish slavery in a time period where such a concept was not heard of would have resulted in people rejecting the entire book. We must remember that the Bible was written for the time period of when it was created even if it has great value up to this day.

2006-11-02 14:10:09 · answer #3 · answered by Gamla Joe 7 · 2 0

its not true that in Islam you can Merry all the slaves you want and you can NEVER Marry a married woman when she is married to another man, there is nothing is surat el nissa or any where else in the Quran that says its okay to Marry a married woman.
and Islam teachings prohibits selling a free man and taking his price it is a HUGE sin and Islam rewards freeing slaves.
so if people did these 2 things then there would be no more slaves.

2006-11-02 14:16:02 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Because all the lower class must suffer their masters will, even back then it was all about being rich or coming from a family of wealth, they do the same today, they gather the masses to the cities with promises of good jobs, good pay, good benefits, they they lay you off or firer you before you can collect, the point is the rich think the lower class of people owe them because they are the reason they eat. The workers will not band together to resist because they are afraid they will loose their crumbs

2006-11-02 14:19:17 · answer #5 · answered by man of ape 6 · 0 0

That depends on what you mean by slavery. Slavery in NT times is very different from the slavery we hear about that caused the civil war in America. Slavery in NT times is pretty much the same as having maids in Singapore, it is voluntary and a form of gainful employment. Sometimes abuses take place, but by and large it is not oppressive or tyrannical as an institution.

2006-11-02 14:09:51 · answer #6 · answered by Seraph 4 · 0 1

We've been over this already.
GOD accepts or rather allows what man wants to do. So God gave strict instructions on how to treat slaves fairly since man would not listen to GOD and love each other. get it?
The bible doesn't condone slavery!

2006-11-02 14:18:46 · answer #7 · answered by JaimeM 5 · 0 0

In Islam, slavery never prohibited but giving freedom to slaves are encouraged. Whenever you sin, your first option is to release a slave by giving freedom.

Also, I totally agree with gratvol's answer. Thumb-up.

2006-11-02 14:12:52 · answer #8 · answered by Weaam 4 · 1 1

Jesus was a slave of his Father and God.

The original-language words rendered “slave” or “servant” are not limited in their application to persons owned by others. The Hebrew word `e´vedh can refer to persons owned by fellowmen. (Ge 12:16; Ex 20:17) Or the term can designate subjects of a king (2Sa 11:21; 2Ch 10:7), subjugated peoples who paid tribute (2Sa 8:2, 6), and persons in royal service, including cupbearers, bakers, seamen, military officers, advisers, and the like, whether owned by fellowmen or not (Ge 40:20; 1Sa 29:3; 1Ki 9:27; 2Ch 8:18; 9:10; 32:9). In respectful address, a Hebrew, instead of using the first person pronoun, would at times speak of himself as a servant (`e´vedh) of the one to whom he was talking. (Ge 33:5, 14; 42:10, 11, 13; 1Sa 20:7, 8) `E´vedh was used in referring to servants, or worshipers, of Jehovah generally (1Ki 8:36; 2Ki 10:23) and, more specifically, to special representatives of God, such as Moses. (Jos 1:1, 2; 24:29; 2Ki 21:10) Though not a worshiper of Jehovah, one who performed a service that was in harmony with the divine will could be spoken of as God’s servant, an example being King Nebuchadnezzar.—Jer 27:6.

The Greek term dou´los corresponds to the Hebrew word `e´vedh. It is used with reference to persons owned by fellowmen (Mt 8:9; 10:24, 25; 13:27); devoted servants of God and of his Son Jesus Christ, whether human (Ac 2:18; 4:29; Ro 1:1; Ga 1:10) or angelic (Re 19:10, where the word syn´dou·los [fellow slave] appears); and, in a figurative sense, to persons in slavery to sin (Joh 8:34; Ro 6:16-20) or corruption (2Pe 2:19).

The Hebrew word na´`ar, like the Greek term pais, basically means a boy or a youth and can also designate a servant or an attendant. (1Sa 1:24; 4:21; 30:17; 2Ki 5:20; Mt 2:16; 8:6; 17:18; 21:15; Ac 20:12) The Greek term oi·ke´tes denotes a house servant or slave (Lu 16:13), and a female slave or servant is designated by the Greek word pai·di´ske. (Lu 12:45) The participial form of the Hebrew root sha·rath´ may be rendered by such terms as “minister” (Ex 33:11) or “waiter.” (2Sa 13:18) The Greek word hy·pe·re´tes may be translated “attendant,” “court attendant,” or “house attendant.” (Mt 26:58; Mr 14:54, 65; Joh 18:36) The Greek term the·ra´pon occurs solely at Hebrews 3:5 and means subordinate or attendant.

2006-11-02 14:11:54 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

SLAVERY AMONG THE ISREALITE WAS ALLOWED IF YOU SOLD YOURSELF TO PAY OFF A DEBT AND YOU HAD TO BE FREED THE SEVENTH YEAR..

NO OTHER "STRANGER" WAS ALLOWED TO BE OWNED.

PAGAN RELIGIONS HAS NO BEARING ON CHRISTIANS.

READ BIBLE--ONE TENDS TO MISLEAD OTHERS WITH WRONG INFORMATION.

MOHAMMED NOT IN BIBLE..

JESUS DID NOT CONDON SLAVERY.

COLOSSIANS JESUS FREED ALL ENMITY,,,,

MOSES ONLY ALLOW IT WITH FAMILY OF ISRAEL VOLUNTARILY TO PAY OFF DEBTS-FREE OF 7 YRS.

LUST IS A SIN-STEALIN-LYING--ALL CAN BE FORGIVEN BY REPENTENCE--SINCERELY

NEITHER ACCEPTED NOR REGULATED--AGAIN THAT IS INCORRECT...TEN COMMANDENTS PROHIBITS IT COMPETELY--

CHRISTIANS HAVE NO PART OF QU'RAN.PLEASE READ TEN COMMANDMENTS..

ANOTHER RELIGION-ANOTHER GOD

YOU ARE ENTITLED BY FREE WILL TO YOUR BELIEFS.

I AM ENTITLED TO MINE.

2006-11-02 14:14:36 · answer #10 · answered by cork 7 · 1 0

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