I believe what your getting at rabbit is that JW's believe that Jesus is not God in the flesh. However; with these two verses it is undeniable proof that Jesus is God in the flesh. The trained JW will never be able to answer your question because the answer hasn't been published in a Watchtower magazine, yet.
2006-11-02 07:29:50
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answer #1
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answered by softfuzzyrabbit 2
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Please be patient with my long answer and read through it.
First, about the text John 1:1.
AT JOHN 1:1 the King James Version reads: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” Trinitarians claim that this means that “the Word” (Greek, ho lo′gos) who came to earth as Jesus Christ was Almighty God himself.
Note, however, that here again the context lays the groundwork for accurate understanding. Even the King James Version says, “The Word was with God.” (Italics ours.) Someone who is “with” another person cannot be the same as that other person. In agreement with this, the Journal of Biblical Literature, edited by Jesuit Joseph A. Fitzmyer, notes that if the latter part of John 1:1 were interpreted to mean “the” God, this “would then contradict the preceding clause,” which says that the Word was with God.
Notice, too, how other translations render this part of the verse:
1808: “and the word was a god.” The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text.
1864: “and a god was the word.” The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.
1928: “and the Word was a divine being.” La Bible du Centenaire, L’Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.
1935: “and the Word was divine.” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.
1946: “and of a divine kind was the Word.” Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.
1950: “and the Word was a god.” New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures.
1958: “and the Word was a God.” The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.
1975: “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.
1978: “and godlike kind was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.
At John 1:1 there are two occurrences of the Greek noun the‧os′ (god). The first occurrence refers to Almighty God, with whom the Word was (“and the Word [lo′gos] was with God [a form of the‧os′]”). This first the‧os′ is preceded by the word ton (the), a form of the Greek definite article that points to a distinct identity, in this case Almighty God (“and the Word was with [the] God”).
On the other hand, there is no article before the second the‧os′ at John 1:1. So a literal translation would read, “and god was the Word.” Yet we have seen that many translations render this second the‧os′ (a predicate noun) as “divine,” “godlike,” or “a god.” On what authority do they do this?
The Koine Greek language had a definite article (“the”), but it did not have an indefinite article (“a” or “an”). So when a predicate noun is not preceded by the definite article, it may be indefinite, depending on the context.
The Journal of Biblical Literature says that expressions “with an anarthrous [no article] predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning.” As the Journal notes, this indicates that the lo′gos can be likened to a god. It also says of John 1:1: “The qualitative force of the predicate is so prominent that the noun [the‧os′] cannot be regarded as definite.”
So John 1:1 highlights the quality of the Word, that he was “divine,” “godlike,” “a god,” but not Almighty God. This harmonizes with the rest of the Bible, which shows that Jesus, here called “the Word” in his role as God’s Spokesman, was an obedient subordinate sent to earth by his Superior, Almighty God.
There are many other Bible verses in which almost all translators in other languages consistently insert the article “a” when translating Greek sentences with the same structure. For example, at Mark 6:49, when the disciples saw Jesus walking on water, the King James Version says: “They supposed it had been a spirit.” In the Koine Greek, there is no “a” before “spirit.” But almost all translations in other languages add an “a” in order to make the rendering fit the context. In the same way, since John 1:1 shows that the Word was with God, he could not be God but was “a god,” or “divine.”
Joseph Henry Thayer, a theologian and scholar who worked on the American Standard Version, stated simply: “The Logos was divine, not the divine Being himself.” And Jesuit John L. McKenzie wrote in his Dictionary of the Bible: “Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated . . . ‘the word was a divine being.’”
Now, if the most accurate translation of this text being 'the word was a divine being', yes, Jesus is a true divine being.
2006-11-02 05:53:18
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answer #2
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answered by lovebibleresearch 2
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First question for you, is God your “true friend”? Does it mean that all of your other friends are FALSE because God is your “true” friend? No, the friendship with God is the best, most holy and outstanding compared to your other friends. Is Jesus the true God, Jesus answered that in John 17:3. According to HIM (Jesus) , his Father is the ONLY true God. That means the Father is the best of them all. Is Jesus a false god then? No, because Jesus IS the SON of God. He is the Son of the true God. The Father is NOT created but the Son is. Notice what the Bible says in John 5:26 - . 26 For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted also to the Son to have life in himself. The Father is Jesus SOURCE of life. That’s why Jesus called his Father, MY God. Define the word “God”. Why do you think Jesus said MY God.
Notice that other gods exist. Jehovah is called “God of gods”. Are you saying that God is God of ALL FALSE gods? Someone cannot be called God of “gods” if these other “gods” do not exist same as saying King of kings if other kings do not exist.
Regarding John 1:1
John 1:1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. Is the word “god” here wrongly translated? Notice this example.
In the pre-Christian times was the human judge, and the human judge was [walking] with [the] God, and the human judge was [God or god]? How would you translate this?
2006-11-02 09:14:39
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answer #3
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answered by trustdell1 3
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Well, your translation is questionable. All versions I've read say in John 1 that the Word was with God and the Word was God. (the Word being Jesus) It's the concept of the trinity that many people have trouble comprehending. Jehovah God, Jesus the Christ, and the Holy Spirit are all one being who is also 3 beings. It's a hard thing to grasp sometimes. So Jesus is God, and Jehovah is the one true God. Both are true.
Be wary of Jehovah's Witnesses. They are known to take verses or partial verses out of context to meet their purposes. For example, the verse they use to justify not taking blood transfusions is only a half verse. The verse actually says something about not taking blood that has been sacrificed to idols. I would recommend checking other bible translations when you study the Word. Any group that only allows you to read one version must be questioned. Wisdom says to check a variety of sources. Strong's concordance gives definitions for all the hebrew and greek words of the original texts if you want to ditg even deeper.
2006-11-02 05:35:59
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answer #4
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answered by BaseballGrrl 6
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I am not familiar with the Jehovah's Witnessed version of the Bible is but I do know what the Word of God says. Jesus Christ is God's Son. Right now, since his resurrection, he is sitting at the right hand of God. There are many things that the Jehovah Witnessed believe, I don't. That doesn't make me love them any less. I can pray for them and ask God to enlighten their minds. But because I don't agree with them does not give me a right to contend with them about the Word of God. There is nothing false about Jesus. If it were not for Him, we would not be able to disagree about anything. May God Bless
2006-11-02 05:37:35
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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According the the King James, and the New Living translations, Jesus is 'the Christ', i.e., the annointed one, and is the only begotten Son of God.
Jesus never claimed to be God and constantly proved that point by praying to God, His Father.
There _is_ only one God, only one begotten Son of God, and only one Holy Spirit. These three beings make up what some have called the Godhead.
The way it works for us is:
If you want to be part of God's family, you must do it through Jesus, the Christ.
After you have accepted Jesus as your savior, the Holy Spirit becomes an ever increasing part of your life and will guide you in the proper path.
Pray to God the Father through Jesus..
As told in John 14:6,
"Jesus told him, I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one can come to the Father except through me. "
2006-11-02 05:39:32
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answer #6
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answered by credo quia est absurdum 7
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jehovah's witnesses are not right in their teaching... John 1:1 says, "in the begining was the word and the word was with God and the Word was God"
No where in that sentence does it say that Jesus is a God... But He is a God because he is the Son of God... He is part of the Trinity The Father, The Son and The Holy Spirit... all of them are the same person..
2006-11-02 05:32:42
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answer #7
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answered by Foxxy 4
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The Word Became Flesh
1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2He was with God in the beginning.
3Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.
They're speaking of Jesus, Later... Jesus atoned for our sins, blessing us with the Holy Spirit. That we might have life
Jesus is the Word, Jesus is the Son of God, Jesus is God. He is part of God, He is God, His Holy Spirit is the God that lives in us, his gift. You need to drop the Jehovah witness study! It's confusing you, and that DOES not come from God. The devil is the author of confusion.
2006-11-02 05:36:43
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answer #8
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answered by If u're a kid, dont answer 2
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Hi, what you have asked is important and needs clearing up.
firstly we do not know God`s sacred name as we know each others,God spoke to Moses and simply stated`I Am Who Am`
this translates in Hebrew as YHWH, and when you add vowels it becomes Yahweh,but still not God`s unknowable name.
when the witnesses use the title Jehovah, almost the same thing applies as again it is not God`s own sacred name,,but a translation of YHWH.
Jesus Son of God,and Saviour,did not disclose Gods name but told us to call God Father,as He called Him Father.
Jesus when He took on human flesh though Himself divine,showed what true humility was by obeying the Fathers will as we also should obey.
2006-11-02 05:40:04
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answer #9
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answered by Sentinel 7
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1 Cor 8:5,6 says there are many gods, but only one true God, the Father.
Where in the bible does it say there are only true gods, and false gods?
Ps 82:6 Jehovah calls human judges gods. Are these false gods?
No,
Are they true gods?
No.
They are representatives of Jehovah who have been appointed to speak and judge in His Name.
Moses is called God to Pharaoh (Ex 7:1)
Is Moses a false god?
No
Is Moses a true God?
No
Moses was appointed by Jehovah to speak for Him to Pharaoh.
Judges 13:21, 22 has the angel of Jehovah being called "God"
Is this angel a false god?
No
Is this angel the true god?
No
This angel was appointed by Jehovah to speak in His behalf.
Jesus is said to be a god, or God (see Judges 13, "G" does not make god the almighty.
Is Jesus a false god?
No
Is Jesus the true God?
No
Jesus also was appointed / anointed by Jehovah to be His spokesman (The Word)
Jesus always said to worship His Father.
Jehovah at Matt 3:17 said what?
This is myself, the beloved?
No He said "This is my Son"
I suspect that it not they could not answer your question, it is that you wouldn't accept their answer.
2006-11-02 07:00:19
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answer #10
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answered by TeeM 7
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