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2006-11-02 02:43:08 · 13 answers · asked by gili k 1 in Travel Africa & Middle East Israel

13 answers

The Arabs did not choose the name--in fact they were insulted at the term when the British began to use it again after WW1.
Only when it became clear it could be used as a political tool against the Jews did they begin to use it.

2006-11-03 01:41:40 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

This is the mangled Arabic mispronunciation of the Roman name for the area.

Note: there is no "P" sound in Arabic.

Until the 1930, the Arabs considered the area part of Syria. The name "Palestine" had always been associated with Jews.

2006-11-05 19:49:58 · answer #2 · answered by mo mosh 6 · 0 0

The term "Palestine" derives from the word Philistine, the name of a non-Semitic ethnic group, who inhabited a smaller area on the southern coast, called Philistia, whose borders approximate the modern Gaza Strip. Philistia encompassed the five cities of Gaza, Ashkelon, Ashdod, Ekron, and Gath. The Egyptian texts of the temple at Medinet Habu, record a people called the P-r-s-t (conventionally Peleset), one of the Sea Peoples who invaded Egypt in Ramesses III's reign. This is considered very likely to be a reference to the Philistines. The Hebrew name Peleshet (Hebrew: פלשת Pəléshseth), usually translated as Philistia in English, is used in the Bible to denote their southern coastal region. The Assyrian emperor Sargon II called it the Palashtu in his Annals. The Philistines seem to have disappeared as a distinct ethnic group by the Assyrian period, however the name of their land remained. During the Persian Period, the Greek form was first used in the 5th century BCE by Herodotus who wrote of a "district of Syria, called Palaistinêi" (whence Latin: Palaestina, whence English: Palestine). The boundaries of the area he referred to were not explicitly stated, but Josephus used the name only for the smaller coastal area, Philistia. Ptolemy also used the term. In Latin, Pliny mentions a region of Syria that was "formerly called Palaestina" among the areas of the Eastern Mediterranean.

2006-11-02 02:53:13 · answer #3 · answered by parsonsel 6 · 4 0

The name "Falastin" that Arabs today use for "Palestine" is not an Arabic name. It is the Arab pronunciation of the Roman "Palaestina".

The British chose to call the land they mandated Palestine, and the Arabs picked it up as their nation's supposed ancient name, though they couldn't even pronounce it correctly and turned it into Falastin a fictional entity. (In an article by Sarah Honig)

http://www.palestinefacts.org/pf_early_palestine_name_origin.php

2006-11-03 02:04:14 · answer #4 · answered by toda1 2 · 2 1

It was the Roman ruler Hadrian who changed the name of Israel to Palestine. He tried to destroy Israel as a people and as a nation and even changed the name of their land to try to do away with their nationality.

2006-11-02 02:46:48 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3 2

it is funny cause i name my daughter Kimia not because of the Persian or arabic meaning. I name her Kimia in my language it mean Peace and i am from Congo Same spelling different meaning!!! But i am glad to know the Persian Meaning as it mean something Precious as she is to me

2016-05-23 16:55:26 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

So if what Bubba said is true then arent the Palestinians actually the same race as the Israelis?

2006-11-02 02:51:16 · answer #7 · answered by elaeblue 7 · 1 1

i'm an arab we dont call israel palestine.bcoz israel doesnt exist and they just occupied and invaded z innocent palestinians and kill them daily and with out any rite they call the country of da palestinians israel.

2006-11-03 06:32:27 · answer #8 · answered by amable 2 · 3 3

Palestine it is.

2006-11-03 01:47:50 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

to diverte the world's attention to them

2006-11-03 22:35:46 · answer #10 · answered by mickey 4 · 0 0

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