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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Texas_Revolution

At the time Texas its own republic, and fought to free its self from Mexico. This was done before America got involved.

2006-11-01 16:40:13 · 14 answers · asked by clone_marshal_bacara 2 in Politics & Government Immigration

cre8 - read the post.

2006-11-01 16:45:54 · update #1

14 answers

to answer your question--the mex can't handle the truth no matter how it is said and no matter how many times it IS said.

2006-11-01 16:48:43 · answer #1 · answered by ? 5 · 0 4

That is a good link that you posted but you need to back up and read the earlier part of the history about how Spain granted land to Austin and allowed 300 Anglo families to move into Spanish land. This happened just about the time Mexico declared Independence from Spain. Years of turmoil followed in the Mexican government but General Santa Ana allowed the Anglos to keep and acquire more land. Over time thousands of Anglos settled in the Northern Mexico area we now call Texas and while The United States made multiple offers to buy the Territory, Americans that had settled there were trying to establish it as an independent republic. Like we Americans always did in the years of expansion we claimed the land the we occupied as our own and displaced those who were there first. Much more was taken from the Native Americans than we ever took from Mexico but we took it just the same.

2006-11-01 17:02:34 · answer #2 · answered by the_buccaru 5 · 1 0

When Texas joined the Union, they claimed that their southern border was the Rio Grande, while the Mexicans claimed that it was a river to the north. The US sent troops to the Rio Grande, and when these were attacked by the Mexicans the President claimed that they had been attacked on American soil and Congress declared war. The US defeated Mexico soundly and seized the territories that are now New Mexico, Arizona, and California, as well as the disputed borderland of Texas.

This was a fairly clear case of the US provoking a war -- and Texas was admitted to the Union as a slave state, strengthening that bloc -- which is why the Mexicans consider the territory we won as "stolen". It had nothing to do with the Texans having won their war of independence.

2006-11-01 16:47:57 · answer #3 · answered by Dick Eney 3 · 0 1

At one time much of Texas belonged to Mexico, before it was a Republic.

2006-11-01 16:51:22 · answer #4 · answered by shepherd 5 · 1 1

Well, technically we did, but that's how things were done back then. After all, Europeans stole America from the Native Americans, then we stole it from the Brits.
Oh, and Mexico was stolen from the Aztecs.

2006-11-01 16:53:04 · answer #5 · answered by zzooti 5 · 3 1

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2016-10-21 03:14:55 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Because everyone believes something was stolen when the lose a war. Texas is part of the US (unfortunately). -- get over it Mexico (it ain't going back)

2006-11-01 16:43:11 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

correct. And Texas was the only state with the option of seceding from the union.

2006-11-01 16:43:07 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Because we did.

The White man just steals things LEGALLY by writing it on paper therefore making it SO.

Don't you know anything?

2006-11-01 19:23:34 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

haven't you learned?

When whites steal, it is called "winning the war", "rebelling against tyranny", "fought for our rights and freedom"

When browns and blacks fight back or rebel, it is called "an invasion", "a massacre", "terrorism"

2006-11-02 02:28:17 · answer #10 · answered by karkondrite 4 · 3 1

BECAUSE IT USED TO BE A PART OF MEXICO

2006-11-01 16:54:29 · answer #11 · answered by jjssweetflags 2 · 3 1

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