2006-11-01 05:16:47 · 4 answers · asked by Dan 4 in Education & Reference ➔ Other - Education
It depends on your culture and the law in your country. When my mother married, she had to change her name to my father's surname. This was a long time ago. A name is only a name and does not change the person .
2006-11-01 08:32:41 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Surnames developed from bynames, which are additional identifiers used to distinguish two people with the same given name. These bynames tend to fall into particular patterns. These usually started out as specific to a person and became inherited from father to son between the twelfth and sixteenth century. The aristocracy usually adopted inherited surnames early on and the peasants did so later. Some of the specific types are: the patronymic (referring to the father or mother), a locative or toponymic (indicating where a person is from), an epithet (which describes a person in some way) or a name derived from occupation, office or status. Most cultures use surnames developed from one or more of these types of bynames. P. H. Reaney's Origins of English Surnames covers the formations of these various types of bynames in much greater detail than is possible here.
See the source below for more on the History of Names.
2006-11-01 05:23:51 · answer #2 · answered by endrshadow 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
do you mean one name as no surname or no need for a middle name? I think you definitely need a surname for official / legal stuff but I don't think middle name is that necessary. I haven't got one...
2006-11-01 05:42:16 · answer #3 · answered by better late than never 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
duh, its obvious
da surname is ur family name n ur first name, well.... is ur name
2006-11-01 05:26:03 · answer #4 · answered by emanuel_arsenalfc 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋