I do not understand you question but Eli would be more since the crowd thought he was calling to Elisha
2006-11-01 01:27:45
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answer #1
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answered by Kenneth G 6
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The whole point is, that Jesus, a Jew being crucified to death, was crying out the first line of a Psalm (Psalm 22) as he hung there dying. It was the practice of the day to refer to a whole Psalm by quoting the first line from that Psalm. It doesn't really matter which form of the word "God" was being used, but in reality, being a Jew, Jesus would probably have cried out in Hebrew--His native language.
It doesn't change the reality of what happened one bit to translate the words used, so that the reader understands what happened. I know that Jesus was quoting Psalm 22 by reading the words translated into English (since I read neither Hebrew, Aramaic, Arabic, or Latin). For my brother or sister in Saudi Arabia, the words would be translated into Arabic without offending me one whit. It won't change the quote, or the history.
The only thing it seems to affect is some straaaaaange form of religious politics. I don't get that at all!
2006-11-01 01:39:08
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answer #2
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answered by MamaBear 6
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A few points to ponder...
1. According to the Muslim faith, Jesus never died on the cross, so He would never have said those words on the cross.
2. Why did you translate the words "Eli, Eli" but not "lamach sabachtani" which is also Hebrew? It appears that your translation needs work. Unless "lamach sabachtani" is also Aramaic.
Also, the correct verse goes like this...
About the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, "ELI, ELI, LAMA SABACHTHANI?" that is, "MY GOD, MY GOD, WHY HAVE YOU FORSAKEN ME?" (lama, not lamach)
3. Yes Jesus spoke Aramaic, but, He also spoke Hebrew (He was Jewish after all and NOT Muslim).
If you are Muslim, your question is irrelevant, as Jesus would have never spoke those words according to the Muslim faith.
Just trying to be as correct as I can be.
The truth will set you free...
2006-11-01 01:57:38
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answer #3
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answered by Bob 5
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What difference does it make? Everyone knows that Jesus spoke Aramaic, but it would not have been unusual for Him to have spoken Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek.
The ancient Greek manuscripts use Eli. And, several of these manuscripts precede the rise of the Muslim religion, so why are you trying to make hay out of a problem that did not exist? There was no anti-muslim sentiments prior to the beginnings of the Muslim religion. THINK ABOUT IT!
2006-11-01 01:41:51
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answer #4
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answered by mediocritis 3
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What is the point of all this? The Hebrew God was YHWH, the proper name. Your assertion that there is no God but Allah is exactly that -- an assertion. It has no basis in fact. So the word for God in Aramaic is similar to the word for God in Arabic. Big deal. The origin is Hebrew, which is YHWH, if you want to be all academic about it. God can refer to a specific god or concept, varying from religion to religion, but it is not a proper name.
2006-11-01 01:18:38
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answer #5
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answered by Zombie 7
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Ar·a·ma·ic (r-mk)
NOUN:
A Semitic language originally of the ancient Arameans but widely used by non-Aramean peoples throughout southwest Asia. Also called Aramean , Chaldean .
Ar·a·bic (r-bk)
NOUN:
A Semitic language consisting of numerous dialects that is the principal language of Arabia, Jordan, Syria, Iraq, Lebanon, Egypt, and parts of northern Africa.
2006-11-01 01:24:16
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answer #6
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answered by atreadia 4
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وَلَمَّا جَاءَتِ السَّاعَةُ الثَّانِيَةَ عَشْرَةَ ظُهْراً، حَلَّ الظَّلاَمُ عَلَى الأَرْضِ كُلِّهَا حَتَّى السَّاعَةِ الثَّالِثَةِ بَعْدَ الظُّهْر
As you can see it says eloi eloi which means "My MY"
no matter how you try to squeeze it into another word it dont fit
how about this
rather than trying to creep in with false doctrine this passage proves that Jesus had RELATIONSHIP with GOD from the beggining Jesus was taking Your place on the cross so that you could have relationship with god and you sin could be dealt with
HOW MUCH DOES GOD LOVE US TO DO THAT FOR US
then on the third day he rose again death could not hold the King of Love halleluja!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
2006-11-01 01:26:57
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answer #7
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answered by proscunio 3
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It is not Aramaic, it is recorded in Greek in Matthew.
eli {ay-lee'}
Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani. The Hebrew form, as Elio, Elio, etc., is the Syro-Chaldaic (the common language in use by the Jews in the time of Christ) of the first words of the twenty second Psalm; they mean "My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me?"
lama was however transliterated from Aramaic meaning Why: as was sabachthani thou hast forsaken me
The Bible speaks and stands for itself. We do not need to change it to fit our needs nor do we need to change it to defend who GOD is.
One thing we need to remember, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani was the most tragic statement ever made in all of history when GOD the Father had to fosake HIS own SON in order to pay a debt Jesus did not own because we owed a debt we could not pay. If we place our trust in Jesus, we wil never have to say those words.
2006-11-01 01:35:11
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Eli Eli lema sabachthani (Ηλει Ηλει λεμα σαβαχθανει)
Matthew 27:46: Around the ninth hour, Jesus shouted in a loud voice, saying "Eli Eli lema sabachthani?" which is, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"Mark 15:34: And at the ninth hour, Jesus shouted in a loud voice, "Eloi Eloi lema sabachthani?" which is translated, "My God, my God, for what have you forsaken me?"
This phrase, shouted by Jesus from the cross, is given to us in these two versions. The Matthean version of the phrase is transliterated in Greek as ηλει ηλει λεμα σαβαχθανει. The Markan version is similar, but begins ελωι ελωι (elÅi rather than Ä"lei).
Jesus seems to be quoting the first line of Psalm 22. However, he is not quoting the canonical Hebrew version (êlî êlî lâmâ `azabtânî), but is using an Aramaic translation of it (see targum).
In the following verse, in both accounts, some who hear Jesus' cry imagine that he is calling for help from Elijah (Eliyyâ). This is perhaps to underline the incomprehension of the bystanders about what is happening. Matthew's use of ηλι may indicate a more 'official' rendition of the psalm verse, more in line with the Hebrew. Mark's version probably represents the Aramaic colloquial better. The Aramaic behind Matthew is êlî êlî lmâ švaqtanî. Whereas Mark has elohî elohî.
A few ancient Greek manuscripts show signs of trying to normalise this text. For instance, the peculiar Codex Bezae renders both versions with ηλι ηλι λαμα ζαφθανι (Ä"li Ä"li lama zaphthani).
As the phrase is clearly translated into Greek in both instances there can be little doubt as to its meaning. However, a minority have speculated on different meanings, among them is George Lamsa, but his methodology has been shown to be seriously flawed.The Aramaic word švaqtanî is based on the verb švaq, 'to leave, forget', with the perfect tense ending -t (2nd person singular: 'you'), and the object suffix -anî (1st person singular: 'me').
This phrase is treated in more depth at Last sayings of Jesus.
In Aramaic, it could be (×ל×"×™ ×ל×"×™ ×œ×ž× ×©×‘×§×ª× ×™).
2006-11-01 01:25:54
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answer #9
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answered by Mud 3
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Jesus replaced into quoting the outlet verse of Psalms 22 interior the Hebrew language wherein it replaced into unique written. The Hebrew be conscious for "god" is "eli" (maximum oftentimes used interior the plural type "elohim".) using fact something of the gospel of Matthew is written in Greek, the author is superb adequate to let us know what those be conscious propose. you're splendid that Jesus did no longer say the be conscious "god", using fact the English language and the be conscious "god" does no longer come into existence for yet another 1200 years. He did, in spite of the indisputable fact that, use the Hebrew be conscious meaning the comparable using fact the English be conscious "god". He replaced into no longer utilising the call Allah, because it does no longer be invented for yet another 600 years, and interior the Arabic incredibly than the Hebrew language. to objective to take a be conscious in one language that occurs to sound similiar to a be conscious in yet another language and cause them to propose the comparable element is a fallacy. "Eli" and "Allah" or no longer the comparable element.
2016-10-21 02:10:19
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answer #10
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answered by corl 4
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