I tried the online translator but it didn't look right
2006-10-31 07:47:34 · 21 answers · asked by thatshowiroll 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
Does "gustar" have to be in the past tense?
2006-10-31 07:49:55 · update #1
No me gustó... yes gustar is in past cause if u dont use it on past you would say "a mi no gustar" and thats gramaticaly wrong in spanish :)
2006-10-31 11:15:16 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I did not like wash my teet
No me gustaba lavarme los dientes
I did not like that I do
No me gustó lo que hice
I did not like myself
No me gusté a mi misma/o
2006-10-31 16:15:14 · answer #2 · answered by joseph 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If it was something specific that only happened once--"No me gusto" with an accent on the o. If it was something that happened often and you never liked it--"No me gustaba".
2006-10-31 16:35:30 · answer #3 · answered by Amy F 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Just to clarify
I did not like=No me gustó
No me gusta=I don´t like
2006-10-31 16:31:02 · answer #4 · answered by Carlos 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
no gusto or gusta depending on whether the item being talked about is masculine or femenine
2006-10-31 15:55:49 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
No me gusto
2006-10-31 15:55:22 · answer #6 · answered by Charpie23 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No me guste
I dont care who speaks spanish Marlen, I'm right
2006-10-31 15:49:04 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋
Marlen is the only one who is right!
2006-10-31 16:10:25 · answer #8 · answered by seaelen 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
no me guste (with an accent over the e) for past tense or no me gustaba in the infinitive.
2006-10-31 15:51:24 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 4⤋
no me gustò
no me gustaba
2006-10-31 16:01:03 · answer #10 · answered by ₪djanma₪ [a man in the maze] 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋