When Adam sinned and lost perfection, it called into question whether or not a perfect man could really live up to God's standards.(Even though Adam's test was very simple) No other person could have proved it. So when Jesus, as a perfect man, lived his life without sin, and then died, he proved that there was nothing wrong with God's Creation. The defect was in man's choice.
And when Jesus died, he also balanced the scales of God's justice: the punishment for sin was death. So, since we all sin, we are all condemned to die. But when Jesus died without sin, (he was not condemned to die) he paid the price for us. That's why we have hope of life without dying...as long as we choose to accept that sacrifice on our behalf.
2006-10-30 11:13:26
·
answer #1
·
answered by tosa 2
·
0⤊
0⤋
Jesus permitted the devil to arrange his crucifixion and death at the hands of the corrupt Jews and the pagan Romans in order to bring about the downfall of Satan, as no one has the right to take the life of a sinless man, let alone the Son of God.
This was the only legitimate way to destroy Satan's dominion over mankind, which had existed ever since Adam sinned.
Once Satan's reign was over, Jesus became the new head of all mankind, humans were free to repent of their sins, God was willing to forgive, and heaven was once again open for business.
2006-10-30 16:00:05
·
answer #2
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
1⤋
My religious team is doing a seerah (lesson) in this very subject rely. Hamza Yusuf's fact on 'Muhammed, based on the earliest ingredients' via Martin Lings. Muhammed pbuh did not die from the poison. He died 3 years after that. study the completed storey. A Jewish female invited Muhammed pbuh and a few of his companions for dinner. She asked what portion of the lamb they enjoyed, and that they spoke back with the shoulder. So she crammed poison in the shoulder and served it. What proves Muhammed's Prophethood is he took a small chew then spit it out then ordered his pals to not consume it.. How did he be attentive to there replace into poison? you'll be able to desire to not style it the way she cooked the meal. Now notice Muhammed's mercy. He questioned the female, and the tale at the back of this transformation into she replace into ordered to realize this via some different Jews. He forgave her for this, he forgave her for attempting to kill him!
2016-10-16 13:39:05
·
answer #3
·
answered by bridgman 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
Jesus was Jewish, therefore, His death on the Cross was the sacrifice of the passover. He is the ultimate sacrificial lamb for all who believe in Him. When He said "it is finished" I believe that He was completing the sacrifice of the passover, where God does not punish those who believe in Him.
In Hebrews 9:12, it says that Christ "entered once for all into the Holy Place, taking not the blood of goats and calves but his own blood, thus securing eternal redemption." Then 9:14 goes on to say that Christ "offered himself without blemish to God." This is no doubt why it is possible for Paul to say in 10:19 that Christians can "have confidence to enter the sanctuary by the blood of Jesus." Now, if Christ’s body and blood in heaven can be applied to sinners on earth without repetition of his sacrificial death when they believe on him, why can’t he be present on earth in the Eucharist forgiving sins without any repetition of his death?
God had sent Jesus to forgive sins, but after his resurrection Jesus told the apostles, "‘As the Father has sent me, even so I send you.’ And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and said to them, ‘Receive the Holy Spirit. If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven; if you retain the sins of any, they are retained’" (John 20:21–23). (This is one of only two times we are told that God breathed on man, the other being in Genesis 2:7, when he made man a living soul. It emphasizes how important the establishment of the sacrament of penance was.)
So, I see the death of Jesus to be His gift to me in guaranteeing that I will have eternal life.
As long as I live that life in a good and loving way...
2006-10-31 07:23:24
·
answer #4
·
answered by Bob 5
·
0⤊
0⤋
Though his death (and resurrection) he overcame Satan's ultimate weapon, death. Further, his death is a 'landmark' event, Acts 3:1, for Christians as his death occurred about 3:00 PM.
2006-10-30 11:19:27
·
answer #5
·
answered by jefferyspringer57@sbcglobal.net 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
The significance I attach to it is that He rose again and conquered death to bring us victory. He died in his human form so that the Gentiles would have a way to reach God through His free gift of salvation.
2006-10-30 10:39:55
·
answer #6
·
answered by Anonymous
·
2⤊
1⤋
jesus was the one and only sacrifice for the remission of sin. he became sin when he took on every sin that had been commited and will ever be commited.
in isaiah 53 jesus was described as a lamb brought to slaughter...death due to sacrifice was to show the seriousness and penalty of sin.
jesus' paid the ultimate price for everyones sins when he bore all sin and died for us all.
2006-10-30 12:18:14
·
answer #7
·
answered by brian l 3
·
0⤊
0⤋
Haha...i like the "no evidence of His existence" answer. Obviously some of us don't own a calendar.
Anyway, the DaVinci Code aside (check out the sly allusion), the significance of Christ's death is huge, but i'll narrow it down to three things. Please just let me throw out there that I am only talking about three things that are applied when a person believes in their heart and confesses with their mouth that Jesus is God. Three implications of Christ's death:
1. The Sin-ward implication (redemption): When Christ died He redeemed all of those who would be saved according to that death - not that there was a limited number that he would save. This word, redeemed, means to be bought out or bought back. He paid the price necessary to buy mankind back from sin and return them to right fellowship with God.
2. The Man-ward implication (reconciliation): Christ's death reconciled believers into a right relationship with God. The reason this is man-ward and not God-ward is because God did not need to be reconciled to anything, rather, it was we who were needing reconciliation to Him.
3. The God-ward implication (propitiation): Big word for a little concept. Christ's death fulfilled two things: God's Justice and God's Law. Man had transgressed both of these things at the moment that he decided to sin. Because of this transgression man was dead in their sin (by the way, the Biblical concept of death is never a "hey-the-lights-are-out-forever deal", it always means separation - physical death is separation of soul and body, spiritual a separation of the soul and God). Being dead in sin meant that not only was man separated, but God's wrath is against sin because He is just. Christ fulfilled this justice by dying a sacrificial death on the Cross.
That's what Christ's death means to me. Hope that sheds some light.
2006-10-30 10:48:19
·
answer #8
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
3⤋
Every scar on His back, each nail in His hands and feet...I put those on Him each time I sin. Yet, He did all that so I could be forgiven. He was the ultimate sacrifice, putting an end to the unnessary, tedious rules of the old testament, and replacing them with "love the Lord your God" and "love your neighbor as yourself."
2006-10-30 10:39:48
·
answer #9
·
answered by Forget My Name. 3
·
1⤊
2⤋
i attach alot of significance to his death. He died for me and you on that cross. His blood was shed to cover your sins. Who else would do that for us. No anyone i know of. God Bless
2006-10-30 10:37:33
·
answer #10
·
answered by mom 3
·
3⤊
2⤋