2006-10-30 08:46:34 · 5 answers · asked by jolipit 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
In the same way that French, Spanish, Italian, etc. can be easily shown to have evolved from a variety of Latin, Latin itself, Greek, and Sanskrit can be shown to have a common ancestor, called Proto-Indo-European. No-one knows for sure where this language may have been spoken, but it is usually considered by linguists to be somewhere around the Black or Caspian Seas.
Many other languages can be seen to have come from the same root, including Welsh, English, German, Russian, Farsi.... whereas, for example, Arabic and Hebrew belong to a separate language "family".
I have seen that some champions of Hinduism claim that Sanskrit is the source language, and/or that the Indo-Europeans came originally from India. The consensus of linguists and historians is against them, and it seems to me like people believing what they'd *like* to be true, without rigorous analysis.
In the end, probably all humans came form Africa, and probably all languages evolved slowly from a common simple language far earlier than Sanskrit, Latin, or any recorded language, and about which we cannot at present have any knowledge at all.
2006-10-30 11:57:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
Latin and Greek are descended from IndoEuropean, of which the oldest written language is Sanskrit. Hebrew/Arabic are unrelated to another language. Latin languages (and Greek motivated Latin...it's prior) comprise the NATIONAL languages: Romanian (closest to Latin) Spanish French Portuguese and Italian, and the opposite professional language of Switzerland, Romansch. And many dialects, adding (however now not restrained to) Savoyenne Languedoc Catalán Gallego and a few others. btw: Spanish is not strongly motivated via German...too some distance away, too little touch. I have no idea if any one is aware of what the language of Babylonia was once, and I do not believe there may be any language regarding Ancient Egyptian. Persian is an Arabic language, I consider. At least it's written with the identical alphabet. Not that that's a assurance.
2016-09-01 04:50:55 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO . but the contrary could be quite true. These languages share a common background i.e. they r called indo -european languages. the ancient people of india came from central asia and they brought sanskrit with them. sanskrit also has a lot in common with ancient iranian languages. this explains the presence of many common demi-gods like indra , vayu , soma in both the cultures
2006-10-30 08:59:47 · answer #3 · answered by curious2 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No they are totally separate
2006-10-30 08:55:47 · answer #4 · answered by Courtney B 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No way, they are competely different
2006-10-30 21:07:11 · answer #5 · answered by C.C. 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋